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1)  Insurance works on the principle of

a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above

2 Insurance is legitimate

a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations

3 Insurance benefits replace

a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent

4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong

5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?

a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right

6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by

a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three

7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because

a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above

8 The reason for charging level premiums is

a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons

9 What does a premium depend upon?

a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent

10 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

11 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?

a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above

14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

15 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong

16 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

17 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

18 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

19 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates

a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above

21 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

22 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

23 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

24 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

25 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

26 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

27 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

28 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?

a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen

30 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,

a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct

32 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

33 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

34 State which of the following statements is correct

a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

35 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

36 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

37 State which one of the following statements is correct

a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

38 Which of the following statements is correct?

a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work

39 State which one of the following statements is correct

a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

40 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

41 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

42 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195

44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these

45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500

Correct Answers Practice Paper 6

1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b

1. Programs from the same developer , sold bundled together , that provide better integration and share common features , toolbars and menus are known as ….
(A) software suites
(B) integrated software packages
(C) software processing packages
(D) personal information managers
(E) none of these
ANS (A)
2. A data warehouse is which of the following ?
(A) Can be updated by the end users
(B) Contains numerous naming conventions and formats
(C) Organized around important subject areas
(D) Contains only current data
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
3. ______________ servers store and manages files for network users.
(A) Authentication
(B) Main
(C) Web
(D) File
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
4. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks Except _____
(A) hackers
(B) spam
(C) viruses
(D) identify theft
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
5. ___________ terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems .
(A) Data
(B) Sales
(C) Query
(D) (Point-of-sale (POS)
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
6. The OSI model is divided into _______ processes called layers.
(A) five
(B) six
(C) seven
(D) eight
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
7. System software is the set of programs that enables your computer’s hardware devices and ______ software to work together.
(A) management
(B) processing
(C) utility
(D) application
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
8. ________ are specially designed computer chips reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
(A) Servers
(B) Embedded computers
(C) Robotic computers
(D) Mainframes
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
9. The following are all computing devices , except………
(A) notebook computers
(B) cellular telephones
(C) digital scanners
(D) personal digital assistants
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
10. in a ring topology , the the computer in possession of the ______ can trasmit data
(A) packet
(B) data
(C) access method
(D) token
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
11. This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen , disk drives, and parallel and serial ports ____
(A) basic input/output system
(B) secondary input/output system
(C) peripheral input/output system
(D) marginal input/output system
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
12. ________ Viruses are often transmitted by a floppy disk left in the floppy drive
(A) Trojan horse
(B) Boot sector
(C) Script
(D) Logic bomb
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
13. ________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer
(A) The platform
(B) Application software
(C) Operating system
(D) The motherboard
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
14. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a ___________
(A) mainframe
(B) network
(C) supercomputer
(D) client
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
15. A goal of data mining includes which of the following?
(A) To explain some observed event or condition
(B) To confirm that data exists
(C) To analyze data for expected relationships
(D) To create a new data warehouse
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
16. URL stands for ……..
(A) Universal Research List
(B) Universal Resource List
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(D) Uniform Research Locator
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
17. A database management system (DBMS) is a …………
(A) hardware system used to create , maintain and provide controlled access to a database
(B) hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(C) software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.
(D) software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
18. Which of the following is NOT a goal of transaction processing system ?
(A) Capture , process and store transactions
(B) Produce a variety of documents related to routine business activities
(C) Reduce manual effort associated with processing business transactions
(D) Produce standard reports used for management decision making
(E) None of these
ANS ()
19. A Proxy server is used for which of the following?
(A) To provide security against unauthorized users
(B) To process client requests for web pages
(C) To process client requests for database access
(D) To provide TCP/IP
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
20. When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes:
(A) data redundancy
(B) information overload
(C) duplicate data
(D) data inconsistency
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
21. _____________ are words that a programming language has set aside for its own use.
(A) Control worlds
(B) Reserved words
(C) Control structures
(D) Reserved keys
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
22. What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?
(A) A worm has the ability to self-propagate from an infected user’s computer to other computers
(B) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script bunnies do not have the skills to develop a worm program
(C) A virus is very harmful to the computers it infects : a worm is not a serious a problem
(D) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting viruses but not worms
(E) None of these
ANS ()
23. ______ describe what is database fields.
(A) Structures
(B) Field markers
(C) Field definition
(D) Field names
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
24. You must install a (n) ____________ on a network if you want to share a broadband Internet connection.
(A) router
(B) modem
(C) node
(D) cable
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
25. A goal of normalization is to __________
(A) minimize the number of relationships
(B) minimize the number of entities
(C) minimize the number of tables
(D) minimize the number of redundancy
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
26. Granting an outside organization access to internet web pages is often implemented using a (n) ____
(A) extranet
(B) intranet
(C) internet
(D) hacker
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
27. Which term identifies a specific computer on the web and the main page of the entire site
(A) URL
(B) Web site address
(C) Hyperlink
(D) Domain name
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
28. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is referred to as …..
(A) QBE
(B) SQL
(C) OLAP
(D) Sequel Server
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
29. Chip is a common nickname for a (n):
(A) transistor
(B) resistor
(C) integrated circuit
(D) semiconductor
(E) None of these
ANS (c)
30. The purpose of the primary key in a database is to:
(A) unlock the database
(B) provide a map of the data
(C) uniquely identify a record
(D) establish constraints on database operations.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
31. A _________ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(A) programming language
(B) syntax
(C) programming structure
(D) logic chart
(E) None of these
ANS ()
32. The design of the network is called the network:
(A) architecture
(B) server
(C) transmission
(D) type
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
33. The most frequently used instructions of a computer program are likely to be fetched from:
(A) the hard disk
(B) cache memory
(C) RAM
(D) registers
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
34. The ____________ contains data descriptions and defines the name, data type, and length of each field in the database.
(A) data dictionary
(B) data table
(C) data record
(D) data field
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
35. Personal logs or journal entries posted on the Web are known as:
(A) listservs
(B) Webcasts
(C) blogs
(D) subject directories
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
36. A(n) _______ uses pictures (called icons) and menus displayed on the screen to send commands to the computer system.
(A) command – based user interface
(B) GUI
(C) system utility
(D) API
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
37. The _____ manual tells you how to use a software program.
(A) documentation
(B) programming
(C) technical
(D) user
(E) None of these
ANS ()
38. Which of the following is NOT a type of broadband Internet connection?
(A) Cable
(B) DSL
(C) Dial-up
(D) Satellite
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
39. Software, such as viruses, worms and Trojan horses, that has a malicious intent, is known as:
(A) spyware
(B) adware
(C) spam
(D) malware
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
40. Making a field ______ means that it cannot be left blank.
(A) numeric
(B) required
(C) calculated
(D) validated
(E) None of these
ANS (B)
41. _________ is the process of finding errors in software code.
(A) Debugging
(B) Compiling
(C) Testing
(D) Running
(E) None pf these
ANS ()
42. ____________ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.
(A) Boot-sector viruses
(B) Macro viruses
(C) Time bombs
(D) Worms
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
43. Linux is a (n) ____________ operating system.
(A) open-source
(B) Microsoft
(C) Windows
(D) Mac
(E) None of these
ANS (A)
44. What is a backup?
(A) Restoring the information backup
(B) An exact copy of a system’s information
(C) The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
45. Which of the following places the common data elements in order from smallest to largest
(A) character, file, record, field, database
(B) character, record, field, database, file
(C) character, field, record, file, database
(D) Bit, byte, character, record, field, file, database,
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
46. The internet is ……
(A) a large network of networks
(B) an internal communication system for a business
(C) a communication system for the Indian government
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
47. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
48. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning file names?
(A) Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both
(B) Every file in the same folder must have a unique name
(C) File extension is another name for file type
(D) The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name
(E) None of these
ANS (D)
49. Verification of a login name and password is known as:
(A) configuration
(B) accessibility
(C) authentication
(D) logging in
(E) None of these
ANS (C)
50. Which of the following would most likely NOT be a symptom of a virus?
(A) Existing program files and icons disappear.
(B) The CD-ROM stops functioning.
(C) The Web browser opens to an unusual home page.
(D) Odd messages or images are displayed on the screen.
(E) None of these
ANS (B)

Railway Recruitment Board Solved Paper English (2009)

(Correct Spelling)

S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam General Awareness

1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—

(A) Bangkok

(B) Singapore

(C) Kualalumpur

(D) Manila

Ans : (D)

2. Explicit cost means—

(A) Payments made for short period

(B) Payments made for long period

(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs

(D) Payments made for productive resources

Ans : (D)

3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—

(A) The social consideration

(B) The economic consideration

(C) The political consideration

(D) The geographical consideration

Ans : (D)

4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?

(A) Land

(B) Labour

(C) Capital

(D) Organisation

Ans : (C)

5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—

(A) Income generation

(B) Large scale production

(C) Low cost technology

(D) Employment generation

Ans : (D)

6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?

(A) Imports from abroad

(B) Purchase of assets from abroad

(C) Sale of assets abroad

(D) Purchase of gold from abroad

Ans : (C)

7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—

(A) A reduction in total cost of production

(B) A reduction in average cost of production

(C) A reduction in prices of inputs

(D) An increase in profitability of producers

Ans : (B)

8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—

(A) Capitalist countries

(B) Socialist countries

(C) Advanced countries

(D) Developing countries

Ans : (D)

9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—

(A) The market rate of interest

(B) Select industries for investments

(C) Banks giving loans

(D) The cash reserve ratios

Ans : (A)

10. Total costs is a combination of—

(A) Fixed cost and variable cost

(B) Money cost and real cost

(C) Economic cost and social cost

(D) Past cost and future cost

Ans : (A)

11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—

(A) 245

(B) 250

(C) 260

(D) 300

Ans : (A)

12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(C) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—

(A) 355

(B) 356

(C) 357

(D) 358

Ans : (A)

14. When did India become a Republic ? On—

(A) August 15, 1947

(B) November 26, 1949

(C) January 26, 1950

(D) December 10, 1946

Ans : (C)

15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?

(A) Brahma Gupta

(B) Aryabhatta

(C) Varahamihira

(D) Ramanujam

Ans : (B)

16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—

(A) Residence of the Monks

(B) Hall of Worship

(C) Dining Hall

(D) Congregation Hall

Ans : (D)

17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?

(A) 1947 A.D.

(B) 1961 A.D.

(C) 1951 A.D.

(D) 1954 A.D.

Ans : (B)

18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—

(A) Atlantic Ocean

(B) Indian Ocean

(C) Pacific Ocean

(D) Arctic Ocean

Ans : (B)

19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?

(A) Tanjore

(B) Madurai

(C) Rameshwaram

(D) Chidambaram

Ans : (D)

20. Australia is particularly known for—

(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation

(B) Sheep rearing and Mining

(C) Lumbering and Paper Mills

(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation

Ans : (B)

21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—

(A) Increase the acidity of the soil

(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil

(C) Decrease the acidity of the soil

(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?

(A) CFC’s

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Carbon monoxide

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans : (A)

23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—

(A) Loss of water

(B) Entry of water

(C) Loss of solutes

(D) Entry of solutes

Ans : (B)

24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—

(A) A

(B) B

(C) A and B

(D) No antigen

Ans : (D)

25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—

(A) Decreases

(B) Increases

(C) Remains the same

(D) Is zero

Ans : (B)

26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—

(A) 200 to 300 db

(B) 300 to 400 db

(C) 500 to 600 db

(D) 0 to 180 db

Ans : (D)

27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—

(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon

(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth

(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon

(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star

Ans : (B)

28. The Angstrom unit measures—

(A) Temperature

(B) Electric current

(C) Time

(D) Wavelength

Ans : (D)

29. We can hold a pen due to the—

(A) Force of gravity

(B) Force of friction

(C) Force of weight

(D) Work done by our muscles

Ans : (B)

30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—

(A) 0·42 joule

(B) 4·2 joule

(C) 42 joule

(D) 420 joule

Ans : (B)

31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—

(A) Electrons

(B) Protons

(C) Neutrons

(D) Alpha particles

Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?

(A) Mercury

(B) Bromine

(C) Glass

(D) Ice-cream

Ans : (C)

33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Protein

(C) Antibody

(D) Hormone

Ans : (B)

34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—

(A) Sodium

(B) Barium

(C) Potassium

(D) Calcium

Ans : (B)

35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?

(A) Building up of tissues

(B) Catalysing some reactions

(C) Growth of bones

(D) Repair of torn tissues

Ans : (B)

36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—

(A) Mercury

(B) Aluminium

(C) Copper

(D) Zinc

Ans : (D)

37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—

(A) Neoprene

(B) Nylon

(C) Rayon

(D) Polyester

Ans : (A)

38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—

(A) Silver

(B) Aluminium

(C) Mercury

(D) Lead

Ans : (C)

39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?

(A) Co-terminus with that of the President

(B) Five years

(C) Six years

(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person

Ans : (B)

40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?

(A) The Government of India Act, 1935

(B) The US Constitution

(C) The British Constitution

(D) The UN Charter

Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?

(A) An algae

(B) A bacterium

(C) A synthetic process

(D) A fungus

Ans : (D)

43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Proteins

(C) Carbohydrates

(D) Lipids

Ans : (C)

44. Acid present in Tamarind is—

(A) Citric acid

(B) Acetic acid

(C) Tartaric acid

(D) Oxalic acid

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Cholera

(C) Common cold

(D) Tetanus

Ans : (C)

46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?

(A) Darjeeling district

(B) Kashmir

(C) Hills in Madhya Pradesh

(D) Nilgiri Hills

Ans : (B)

47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?

1. Black pepper

2. Cardamom

3. Cloves

4. Ginger

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?

(A) Right to strike

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right to equality

(D) Right to freedom of religion

Ans : (A)

49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?

(A) The District Judge

(B) The Human Rights Commission

(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court

(D) The Director General of Police

Ans : (C)

50. What does hail consist of ?

(A) Granular ice

(B) Crystals of ice

(C) Water droplets

(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other

Ans : (D)

General Awareness
Questions asked in GIC/LIC/OIC AAO Exam, held in May 2007

1.The first metal to be used by man was:

(a) aluminium
(b) copper
(c) iron
(d) silver

2.The present base year for calculating wholesale
price index number is:

(a) 1993-94
(b) 1991-92
(c) 1961-62
(d) 1950-51

3.For respiration in deep sea, divers use mixture
of:

(a) Oxygen and helium
(b) Oxygen and hydrogen
(c) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(d) Oxygen and nitrogen

4.Who committed the most daring murder of Sir
Curzen Wyllie in 1907 in a public meeting in London?

(a) B.N. Dutta
(b) M.L. Dhingra
(c) Sardar Ajit Singh
(d) S.C. Chatterjee

5.The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice
and:

(a) 12 Judges
(b) 15 Judges
(c) 20 Judges
(d 25 Judges

6.The International Day for Elimination of Racial
Discrimination is observed on:

(a) 20th February (b) 21st February
(c) 20th March
(d) 21st March

7.‘New Horizons’ spacecraft was launched by
NASA to study which of the following planet?

(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) Mercury

8.Which of the following statements are true about
‘2011 Cricket World Cup’?

A. India will host the 2011 World Cup Final.
B. The two semi-final of the mega event will be held
in Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
C. The opening ceremony will be held in
Bangladesh.

D. UAE will host the matches which will be played
between India and Pakistan.
(a) only A, B and C
(b) only B, C and D
(c) only A, C and D
(d) only A and D

9.Which of the following trophies is related with
the game of ‘Football’?

(a) Mumbai Gold Cup
(b) Everest Cup
(c) Merdeka Cup
(d) V.C.C. Cup

10.On which date is Life Insurance Corporation of
India completed its 50 years?

(a) 5th July
(b) 3rd August
(c) 1st September
(d) 15th September

11.The minimum temperature at which a com-
bustible substance catches fire is called:

(a) fireless temperature
(b) ignition temperature
(c) static temperature
(d) optimum temperature

12.The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha
of the:

(a) Maratha Dynasty
(b) Chola Dynasty
(c) Ganga Dynasty
(d) Vijaynagar Empire

13.Rigveda Samhita denotes one-fourth of its
hymns to:

(a) Rudra
(b) Marut
(c) Agni
(d) Indra

14.Ahalyabai, the saintly queen of Maheshwar
(Central India) belonged to which dynasty?

(a) Scindhya dynasty
(b) Peshwa dynasty
(c) Holkar dynasty
(d) Rajput dynasty

15.Which one of the following is not a constitu-
tional body?

(a) Election Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission

16.‘Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)‘ has
not yet been signed by:

(a) India
(b) China
(c) Canada
(d) United Kingdom

17.Jadugoda mines are famous for:

(a) iron ore
(b) mica deposits
(c) gold deposits
(d) uranium deposits

18.What is the Value Added Tax (VAT)?

(a) A single tax that replaces State Taxes like
surcharge, turnover tax, etc.
(b) A simple, transparent, easy to pay tax imposed
on consumers.
(c) A new initiative taken by the government to
increase the tax burden of high income groups.
(d) A new tax to be imposed on the producers of
capital goods.

19.What is the name of the World’s smallest
republic which has an area of 21 sq.km.?

(a) Vatican City (b) Palermo
(c) Namur
(d) Nauru

20.On Jan 10, 2007 India crossed another mile-
stone with the successful launch of PSLV-C7 which
injected into orbit for the first time four satellites, Car-
tosat-2, SRE-1, Lapan-Tubsat and Pehuensat-1. Which
one of them is an earth observation satellite?

(a) Cartosat-2
(b) SRE-1
(c) Lapan-Tubsat
(d) Pehuensat-1

21.Which bank has launched India’s first loan
disbursement card recently?
(a) SBI
(b) UTI
(c) IDBI
(d) ICICI

22.Who has been named “Businessman of the Year
for 2006” by Forbes Asia?

(a) Nandan Nilekani
(b) Mukesh Ambani
(c) Vijay Mallya
(d) Azim Premji

23.Who is the 37th Chief Justice of India?

(a) Ram Jethmalani (d) Y.K. Sabharwal
(c) Bijibhai Patnaik (d) K.G. Balkrishnan

24.‘Diet’ is a joint session of the Parliament of
which nation?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Vietnam
(d) Germany

25.Who is the author of the book, Amitabh—The
Making of a Superstar?

(a) Tushar Raheja
(b) Vijay Singhvi
(c) Susmita Das Gupta
(d) Raj Kamal Jha

26.Ban-ki-Moon who took oath on 14th December
as U.N. Secretary General belonged to:

(a) South Africa
(b) South Korea
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) Yugoslavia

27.The first woman in the world to successfully do
a free fall para-jump over the South Pole from a height
of 12,000 feet in a minus 33 degree Celsius tempera-
ture, is:

(a) Sheetal Mahajan (b) Manisha Lamba
(c) Kangna Ranaut (d) Neha Ahuja

28.Paris is situated on the river:

(a) Danube
(b) Seine
(c) Tiber
(d) Avon

ANSWERS
1. (b)2. (a)3. (d)4. (b)5. (d)6. (d)
7. (b)8. (a)9. (c)10. (c)11. (b)
12. (c)13. (d)14. (c)15. (c)16. (a)
17. (d)18. (a)19. (d)20. (c)21. (d)
22. (a)23. (d)24. (b)25. (c)26. (b)
27. (a)28. (b)

61. Samadhi of Morarji Desai is : Abhayaghat

62. Kunjali Marakkar was killed by the Portuguese in : 1600 in Goa

63.Which English chemist in his attempts to explain chemical reactions claimed that ‘all matter are

composed of atoms’ : John Dalton

64. When did Gandiji visit Kerala first time : 1920

65. Varanasi is situated on the banks of the river : Ganges,in Utter Pradesh

66. Which is known as ‘City of Seven Hills’ : Rome

67. Attingal Rebellion was in : 1721

68. Bhagavat Gita is a part of : The Mahabharatha

69. Kullachal Battle was in : 1741

70. Samadhi of Gulzarilal Nanda is : Narayanghat

71. Which is known as ‘City Of Gems’ : Ratnapura

72. Chanar Lahala was in : 1859

73. Mangolians living in Assam region : Abhors

74. Vijayavada is situated on the banks of the river : Krishna ,Andra Pradesh

75. Malayali Memoriyal at Travancore was in : 1891

76. Which is known as City of Students : Moscow

77. Ezhava Memorial was in : 1896

78. ‘Lambert is the unit of : Intensity of light

79. Samadhi of Jagjivan Ram is : Samathasthal

80. Mopla Rebellion was in : 1921

81. Hydrabad is situated on the bank of the river : Musi,in Andhra Pradesh

82. which is known as ‘ Cockpit of Europe’ : Belgium

83. Wagon Tragedy was in : 1921

84. The first law giver of ancient India was :Manu

85. Vaikkom Satyagraha was in : 1924

86. Which is known as ‘Copper Country’ : Zambia

87. Samadhi of Lal Bahadur Shastri is known as : Vijayaghat

88. Guruvayoor Satyagraha was in : 1931

89. Kanpur is situated on the bank of the river : Ganges , in Uttar Pradesh

90. The Dutch born in South Africa : Afrikaners