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1) An athlete runs 200 metres race in 24 seconds.His speed (in km/hr) is

(1) 20       (2) 24

(3) 28.5    (4) 30

Ans (4)

2)A train passes two bridges of lengths 800 m and 400 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds respectively  The length of the train is

A 80m B.90m

C. 200 m 0. 150m

Ans (3)

3) Find the least multiple of 23, which when divided by’18, 21 and 24 leaves the remainder 7, 10 and 13 respectively

1 3013            2.3024

3. 3002          4. 3036

Ans 1

4)Find the greatest number of five digits which when divided by 3, 5, 8, 12 have 2 as remainder

1 99999          2.99958

3. 99960         4. 99962

Ans (4)

5. If 324 x 150= 54, 251 x 402 = 48 and 523 x 246= 120, then 651 x 345 =?

1. 120         2. 85

3. 144         4. 60

Ans (3)

6. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 12 x 7 =408 and 9 x 8 =207, then 13 x 7 =?

1. 190             2. 91

3. 901            4. 109

ans (4)

7. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?

1. QIIVYX        2. RJJWZV

3. RJJWZY      4. RIIVYX

ans (3)

Union Bank of India Probationary
Officers Exam., 2008
Reasoning : Solved Paper

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these

5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related
to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK

(E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in
descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in
that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja

(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following
five numbers ?

254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.

17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.

18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.

Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.

19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.

20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.

21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.

22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below—
B# AR 5 8 E%M F4 J 1 U@ H2 © 9 T I6 * W 3 P # K7 $ Y

23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of
the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these

28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols

followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 %3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M IT R QJ FHAE UNBG L
Conditions :

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these

31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these

32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these

33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these

34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these

35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these

36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are

used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H

43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V

Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given
below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the

third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.

50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these

51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these

52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these

53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these

54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these

55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.

II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways

58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.

60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers with Hints

1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 987654
11. (D) 963, 84 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B# AR E %M FJ U@H © T I* W P # K$ Y

11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)

56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time
after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded
part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms
after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.
62. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45°
and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating
90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively.
63. (E)
64. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line
increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side.
65. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward side respectively.
66. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These
designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also.
67. (B)
68. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal
lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left
respectively.
69. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side.
So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside.
70. (E) 71. (A)
72. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left
corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively.
73. (B)
74. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side.
75. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then half side anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one and half side, two side and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.

Railway Recruitment Board Solved Paper English (2009)

(Correct Spelling)

S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam General Awareness

1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—

(A) Bangkok

(B) Singapore

(C) Kualalumpur

(D) Manila

Ans : (D)

2. Explicit cost means—

(A) Payments made for short period

(B) Payments made for long period

(C) Payments incurred on fixed and variable costs

(D) Payments made for productive resources

Ans : (D)

3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—

(A) The social consideration

(B) The economic consideration

(C) The political consideration

(D) The geographical consideration

Ans : (D)

4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?

(A) Land

(B) Labour

(C) Capital

(D) Organisation

Ans : (C)

5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—

(A) Income generation

(B) Large scale production

(C) Low cost technology

(D) Employment generation

Ans : (D)

6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?

(A) Imports from abroad

(B) Purchase of assets from abroad

(C) Sale of assets abroad

(D) Purchase of gold from abroad

Ans : (C)

7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—

(A) A reduction in total cost of production

(B) A reduction in average cost of production

(C) A reduction in prices of inputs

(D) An increase in profitability of producers

Ans : (B)

8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—

(A) Capitalist countries

(B) Socialist countries

(C) Advanced countries

(D) Developing countries

Ans : (D)

9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—

(A) The market rate of interest

(B) Select industries for investments

(C) Banks giving loans

(D) The cash reserve ratios

Ans : (A)

10. Total costs is a combination of—

(A) Fixed cost and variable cost

(B) Money cost and real cost

(C) Economic cost and social cost

(D) Past cost and future cost

Ans : (A)

11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—

(A) 245

(B) 250

(C) 260

(D) 300

Ans : (A)

12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(C) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—

(A) 355

(B) 356

(C) 357

(D) 358

Ans : (A)

14. When did India become a Republic ? On—

(A) August 15, 1947

(B) November 26, 1949

(C) January 26, 1950

(D) December 10, 1946

Ans : (C)

15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?

(A) Brahma Gupta

(B) Aryabhatta

(C) Varahamihira

(D) Ramanujam

Ans : (B)

16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—

(A) Residence of the Monks

(B) Hall of Worship

(C) Dining Hall

(D) Congregation Hall

Ans : (D)

17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?

(A) 1947 A.D.

(B) 1961 A.D.

(C) 1951 A.D.

(D) 1954 A.D.

Ans : (B)

18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—

(A) Atlantic Ocean

(B) Indian Ocean

(C) Pacific Ocean

(D) Arctic Ocean

Ans : (B)

19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?

(A) Tanjore

(B) Madurai

(C) Rameshwaram

(D) Chidambaram

Ans : (D)

20. Australia is particularly known for—

(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation

(B) Sheep rearing and Mining

(C) Lumbering and Paper Mills

(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation

Ans : (B)

21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—

(A) Increase the acidity of the soil

(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil

(C) Decrease the acidity of the soil

(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?

(A) CFC’s

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Carbon monoxide

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans : (A)

23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—

(A) Loss of water

(B) Entry of water

(C) Loss of solutes

(D) Entry of solutes

Ans : (B)

24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—

(A) A

(B) B

(C) A and B

(D) No antigen

Ans : (D)

25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—

(A) Decreases

(B) Increases

(C) Remains the same

(D) Is zero

Ans : (B)

26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—

(A) 200 to 300 db

(B) 300 to 400 db

(C) 500 to 600 db

(D) 0 to 180 db

Ans : (D)

27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—

(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon

(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth

(C) Earth comes between the sun and the moon

(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star

Ans : (B)

28. The Angstrom unit measures—

(A) Temperature

(B) Electric current

(C) Time

(D) Wavelength

Ans : (D)

29. We can hold a pen due to the—

(A) Force of gravity

(B) Force of friction

(C) Force of weight

(D) Work done by our muscles

Ans : (B)

30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—

(A) 0·42 joule

(B) 4·2 joule

(C) 42 joule

(D) 420 joule

Ans : (B)

31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—

(A) Electrons

(B) Protons

(C) Neutrons

(D) Alpha particles

Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?

(A) Mercury

(B) Bromine

(C) Glass

(D) Ice-cream

Ans : (C)

33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Protein

(C) Antibody

(D) Hormone

Ans : (B)

34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—

(A) Sodium

(B) Barium

(C) Potassium

(D) Calcium

Ans : (B)

35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?

(A) Building up of tissues

(B) Catalysing some reactions

(C) Growth of bones

(D) Repair of torn tissues

Ans : (B)

36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—

(A) Mercury

(B) Aluminium

(C) Copper

(D) Zinc

Ans : (D)

37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—

(A) Neoprene

(B) Nylon

(C) Rayon

(D) Polyester

Ans : (A)

38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—

(A) Silver

(B) Aluminium

(C) Mercury

(D) Lead

Ans : (C)

39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?

(A) Co-terminus with that of the President

(B) Five years

(C) Six years

(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person

Ans : (B)

40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?

(A) The Government of India Act, 1935

(B) The US Constitution

(C) The British Constitution

(D) The UN Charter

Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?

(A) An algae

(B) A bacterium

(C) A synthetic process

(D) A fungus

Ans : (D)

43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Proteins

(C) Carbohydrates

(D) Lipids

Ans : (C)

44. Acid present in Tamarind is—

(A) Citric acid

(B) Acetic acid

(C) Tartaric acid

(D) Oxalic acid

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Cholera

(C) Common cold

(D) Tetanus

Ans : (C)

46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?

(A) Darjeeling district

(B) Kashmir

(C) Hills in Madhya Pradesh

(D) Nilgiri Hills

Ans : (B)

47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?

1. Black pepper

2. Cardamom

3. Cloves

4. Ginger

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?

(A) Right to strike

(B) Right against exploitation

(C) Right to equality

(D) Right to freedom of religion

Ans : (A)

49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?

(A) The District Judge

(B) The Human Rights Commission

(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court

(D) The Director General of Police

Ans : (C)

50. What does hail consist of ?

(A) Granular ice

(B) Crystals of ice

(C) Water droplets

(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other

Ans : (D)

61. Samadhi of Morarji Desai is : Abhayaghat

62. Kunjali Marakkar was killed by the Portuguese in : 1600 in Goa

63.Which English chemist in his attempts to explain chemical reactions claimed that ‘all matter are

composed of atoms’ : John Dalton

64. When did Gandiji visit Kerala first time : 1920

65. Varanasi is situated on the banks of the river : Ganges,in Utter Pradesh

66. Which is known as ‘City of Seven Hills’ : Rome

67. Attingal Rebellion was in : 1721

68. Bhagavat Gita is a part of : The Mahabharatha

69. Kullachal Battle was in : 1741

70. Samadhi of Gulzarilal Nanda is : Narayanghat

71. Which is known as ‘City Of Gems’ : Ratnapura

72. Chanar Lahala was in : 1859

73. Mangolians living in Assam region : Abhors

74. Vijayavada is situated on the banks of the river : Krishna ,Andra Pradesh

75. Malayali Memoriyal at Travancore was in : 1891

76. Which is known as City of Students : Moscow

77. Ezhava Memorial was in : 1896

78. ‘Lambert is the unit of : Intensity of light

79. Samadhi of Jagjivan Ram is : Samathasthal

80. Mopla Rebellion was in : 1921

81. Hydrabad is situated on the bank of the river : Musi,in Andhra Pradesh

82. which is known as ‘ Cockpit of Europe’ : Belgium

83. Wagon Tragedy was in : 1921

84. The first law giver of ancient India was :Manu

85. Vaikkom Satyagraha was in : 1924

86. Which is known as ‘Copper Country’ : Zambia

87. Samadhi of Lal Bahadur Shastri is known as : Vijayaghat

88. Guruvayoor Satyagraha was in : 1931

89. Kanpur is situated on the bank of the river : Ganges , in Uttar Pradesh

90. The Dutch born in South Africa : Afrikaners

General Knowledge Question  Series 1

1. Parasuram is believed to be the incarnation of : Vishnu

2. Ayodhya is situated on the banks of the river :Sarayu in Uttar Pradesh

3. The two priests who played a major part during the Rig Vedic Period were : Vasi

4.Christianity was introduced in India by : St Thomas

5.Which is known as ‘Britain of the East’ : Japan

6.St.Thomas first came to Kerala in : A.D 52

7.Leading producer of turmeric is : India

8.Samadhi of mahathma Gandi is :Rajghat

9.Badhrinath is situated on the banks of river : Alakananda in Uttaranchal

10. Huang Tsang visited Kerala in: A.D.630

11.Which is known as ‘Britain of the South’ : New Zealand

12. Sankaracharya lived during the period of : Kulasekharas

13. Kolkata is situated on the banks of the river : Hoogly,in West Bengal

14. Name the Rig Vedic god who is called ‘Purandara’ or breaker of forts : Indra

15. The only Muslim kingdom in Kerala was : the Arrakal Kingdom

16. Which is known as ‘Battle field of Europe’ : Belgium

17. Name the Chineese traveller who visited Kerala in 1409 : Mahuven

18. Plants of a particular region is called : Flora

19. The Arabian merchant Silaiman visited Kerala in : A.D 851

20. Cuttack is situated on the banks of the river : Mahanadi,in Orissa

21. Which is known as city of ‘Arabian Nights’ : Baghdad

22. Which was the capital of Venad kingdom : Kollam

23………… acted as an inter mediatory between the gods and the people in the Vedic period : Agni

24. Delhi is situated on the banks of the river ; Yamuna

25. Beginning of Malayalam era : A.D 825

26. Which is known as ‘City of Cycles’ : Beijing

27. ……… one of the old regional festivals ,was held at Thirunavaya during the reign of Samoothiri of Kozhikode : Mamankom.

28. ‘Sathyameva Jayathae’ have been taken from : Mundaka Upanishath

29. Samadhi of Jevaharlal Nehru : Santhivan

30. Guwahati is situated on the banks of the river : Brahmaputra in Assam