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Railway Recruitment Board Solved Paper

Posted by admin on June 4th, 2010

Railway Recruitment Board Solved Paper English (2009)

(Correct Spelling)

1. (A) Comitment
(B) Comittment
(C) Committment
(D) Commitment
Ans : (D)
2. (A) Fullfil
(B) Fulfil
(C) Fulfill
(D) Fullfill
Ans : (B)
3. (A) Defendant
(B) Defendent
(C) Defandent
(D) Defandant
Ans : (A)
4. (A) Varstile
(B) Verstile
(C) Versatile
(D) Vorstyle
Ans : (C)
5. (A) Recomand
(B) Recommend
(C) Reconand
(D) Recomend
Ans : (B)
6. I always fall ……… old Friends in times of need.
(A) over
(B) through
(C) back on
(D) off
Ans : (C)
7. The party decided to take the shortest…… to its destination.
(A) root
(B) route
(C) distance
(D) direction
Ans : (B)
8. The girl was very pleased……… herself.
(A) in
(B) on
(C) over
(D) with
Ans : (D)
9. Because of deforestation birds are……… their nerting places.
(A) cooking
(B) conserving
(C) searching
(D) demanding
Ans : (C)
10. The thieves broke…… the museum to steal the painting.
(A) up
(B) side
(C) off
(D) into
Ans : (D)
11. Where was the battle of Plassey fought ?
(A) Karnal
(B) Haldighati
(C) Mysore
(D) Bengal
Ans : (D)
12. Who was the first Vice-President of India ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) C. V. Raman
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
Ans : (A)
13. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857 ?
(A) Cartridge containing fat
(B) Frustration in soldiers
(C) Failure of British Government
(D) Administrative research
Ans : (B)
14. Which of the following is UHF ?
(A) 40 MHz
(B) 400 MHz
(C) 400 KHz
(D) 40 KHz
Ans : (B)
15. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be—
(A) mp
(B) p2m
(C) p3m
(D) p2/2m
Ans : (D)
16. S. I. unit of power is ‘watt’. It is equivalent to which of the following ?
(A) Kgms–2
(B) Kgm2s–2
(C) Kgm2s–3
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)
17. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs—
(A) Brien Lara
(B) Sanat Jaysurya
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Virendra Sehwag
Ans : (C)
18. Which is the oldest Veda ?
(A) Samveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)
19. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
(B) Liyaquat Ali Khan
(C) Gaffar Khan
(D) Benazir Bhutto
Ans : (A)
20. Who invented television ?
(A) J. L. Baird
(B) Lawrance
(C) Frederick Trechithic
(D) King Gillette
Ans : (A)
21. Who invented wireless ?
(A) Marconi
(B) Charles Caterin
(C) George Cayley
(D) Zenobe Gramme
Ans : (A)
22. Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals ?
(A) Alert army
(B) Large army
(C) Political monopoly
(D) Guerilla warfare
Ans : (D)
23. Find out the next term of the series—
1, 2, 4, 7, 11, ……
(A) 16
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 4
Ans : (A)
24. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Delhi
Ans : (A)
25. Who wrote the Meghdoot ?
(A) Kalidas
(B) Vatsyayan
(C) Chanakya
(D) Premchand
Ans : (A)
26. Find out the missing term of the series—
11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41……
(A) 43
(B) 47
(C) 53
(D) 51
Ans : (B)
27. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta ?
(A) Saket
(B) Urvashi
(C) Prempachisi
(D) Gatha
Ans : (A)
28. Which is the longest railwayline of the world ?
(A) Trans-Siberian
(B) Trans-Canadian
(C) Orient Railway line
(D) Railwayline from London to Paris
Ans : (A)
29. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (A)
30. Garaba folk dance belongs to which of the following states ?
(A) Manipur
(B) Assam
(C) Gujarat
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)
(Nearest Meaning)

——————————————————————————–
31. Addicted—
(A) wild
(B) enhaneed
(C) sentenced
(D) incline
Ans : (D)
32. Bewilder—
(A) Cross
(B) Seize
(C) Puzzle
(D) Annoy
Ans : (C)
33. Destitute—
(A) Sick
(B) Poor
(C) thin
(D) Angry
Ans : (B)
34. Genteel—
(A) Clever
(B) Polite
(C) Hopeful
(D) Lovable
Ans : (B)
35. Camouflage—
(A) Deject
(B) Disappear
(C) Drown
(D) Conceal
Ans : (D)
36. A thing liable to be easily broken—
(A) Breakable
(B) Ductile
(C) Brittle
(D) Delicate
Ans : (C)
37. Animal living on land and in water—
(A) Ambiguous
(B) Pacify
(C) Amphibian
(D) Ambivalend
Ans : (C)
38. One who does not care for literature or and—
(A) Barbarian
(B) Philistine
(C) Primitive
(D) Literate
Ans : (B)
39. The following country is the winner of the last three world cricket coups—
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) Australia
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)
40. Find the odd man out—
1, 5, 14, 30, 50, 55, 91
(A) 5
(B) 50
(C) 55
(D) 91
Ans : (B)
41. Find out wrong number in each sequence—
582, 605, 588, 611, 634, 617, 600
(A) 634
(B) 611
(C) 605
(D) 600
Ans : (A)
42. A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. He instead multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was—
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 25
(D) 32
Ans : (A)
43. Insert the missing number—
16, 33, 65, 131, 261, (……)
(A) 523
(B) 521
(C) 613
(D) 721
Ans : (A)
44. 3251 + 587 + 369 – ? = 3007
(A) 1250
(B) 1300
(C) 1375
(D) 1200
Ans : (D)
45. If 2 tables and 3 chairs cost Rs. 3500 and 3 tables and 2 chairs cost Rs. 4000, then how much does a table cost ?
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs. 750
(C) Rs. 1000
(D) Rs. 1500
Ans : (C)
46. The sum of first five prime numbers is—
(A) 11
(B) 18
(C) 26
(D) 28
Ans : (D)
47. Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their H. C. F. is 12. The numbers are—
(A) 4, 8, 12
(B) 5, 10, 15
(C) 10, 20, 30
(D) 12, 24, 36
Ans : (D)
48. Income of a company doubles after every one year. If the initial income was Rs. 4 lakhs, what would be the income after 5 years ?
(A) Rs. 1•24 crores
(B) Rs. 1•28 crores
(C) Rs. 2•52 crores
(D) Rs. 2•56 crores
Ans : (B)
49. Water boils at 212??F or 100?C and melts at 32?F or 0?C. If the temperature of a particular day is 35?C, it is equivalent to—
(A) 85?F
(B) 90?F
(C) 95?F
(D) 99?F
Ans : (C)
50. A Bazar has an average of 510 people on Sundays and 240 on other days. The average number of people per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday is—
(A) 250
(B) 276
(C) 280
(D) 285
Ans : (D)
51. Kumar is older than Vishnu who is younger than Ashoka. Harsha is older than Anil but younger than Vishnu, Ashoka is younger than Kumar. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Kumar
(B) Ashoka
(C) Vishnu
(D) Anil
Ans : (D)
52. A station director starts from the radio station Jalandhar and drives 15 km towards west, turns, left and covers another 10 km and again turns, right and covers 18 km. In which direction is he driving ?
(A) South
(B) West
(C) South West
(D) North West
Ans : (B)
53. If TOM = 48 and DICK = 27, what is HARRY equal to ?
(A) 50
(B) 44
(C) 70
(D) 60
Ans : (C)
54. If UNDERSTAND is coded as 1234567823, how will START be coded ?
(A) 56781
(B) 83243
(C) 73652
(D) 67857
Ans : (D)
55. Foot is to hand as leg is to—
(A) Elbow
(B) Toe
(C) Finger
(D) Arm
Ans : (D)
56. Daughter is to father as niece is to—
(A) Nephew
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Mother
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 57–60) Read the following information and give the answers. If you start running from a point towards North and after covering 4 kms you turn to your left and run 5 km and then again turn to your left and run 5 km and then turn to left again and run another 6 km and before finishing you take another left turn and run 1 km, then answer questions based on this information—
57. How many kms are you from the place you started ?
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 4 km
Ans : (A)
58. In which direction will you be running while finishing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
59. After taking the second turn, in which direction will you be running ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (D)
60. From the finishing point if you have to reach the point from where you started in which direction will you have to run ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (B)

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R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009: Solved Paper

Posted by admin on May 28th, 2010

1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?
(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)

9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included
fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)

11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)

13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)

15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)

17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in
organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :

18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)

20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)

21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in
meaning to the words in question :

22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)

23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)

24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)

25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)

26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling
point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online
admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the
long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges
and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)

29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)

30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical
colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may
decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or
government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address
his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)

33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)

36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in
the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)

37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara
School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)

43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted
at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)

44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between
them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given
set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)

Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following number series ?

47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)

48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will
you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama;
Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama
is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the
right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the
left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)

52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)

53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English
alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the
next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter
will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of
which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be
when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words
to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same
relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four
alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)

56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)

57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)

59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place
of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)

62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number
of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter
of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How
many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)

68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)

69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half
rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and
one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find
the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)

71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp
posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp
posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if
1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)

73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the
remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every
day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent
he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of
days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite
in meaning to the word ?

75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)

76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)

77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)

78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the
numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged
in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)

79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the
following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)

81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460.
What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)

82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59%
of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of
B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then,
what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)

84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of
the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)

85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)

86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)

87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)

88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)

90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)

91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the
following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)

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NTPC Exam-PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS

Posted by admin on May 28th, 2010


Some Technical Questions from Previous NTPC Exam :

Technical Paper :

1. Given four unit-circle plots identify the one corresponding to a bandpass filter.

2. A 4 kHz signal is sampled at thrice the Nyquist rate and sent through a channel with error ≤1%. Calc the bandwidth of the channel.

3. Given a two port network in the form of a T find o/p admittance in terms of y-parameters.


4. Connect two 1Ω resistors in series, then connect two 1H inductors across one of the resistors such that the ckt looks like a 1Ω resistor in series with a Π-section of a resistor and two inductors. With the series resistance on the i/p side, calc the transfer function of this ckt


5. Inverse laplace transform of 1/s2[d/ds(e-3s/s)]

6. Lower useful input limit of a transducer is determined by…

7. Air-cored inductors are used for low frequency/high frequency/equal frequency operations.

8. Given 4 pole-zero plots identify which one corresponds to the driving point impedance of a series resonant ckt.

9. Expression for δ(n): u(n)-u(n-1)/ u(n-1)-u(n+1)/ u(n)+u(n+1)/…


10. The sequence (2,3,4,3) is circularly even/circularly odd/circularly zero/both circularly even and odd.

11. Z-transform of 3n u(n).

12. Match the following with their characteristics: LED/LCD/nixie tube/optical fibre.

13. Numerical on a photodiode: to calculate the responsivity/sensitivity when a specified no of incident photons cause a specified no of electron generation.

14. Given an op-amp ckt obtain an expression for o/p voltage.

15. No. of encirclements made about the origin of the nyquist plot of the open loop TF:1/[(s-1)(s+2)(s+3)].

16. For a radioactive sample which decays to 12.5% of its initial value in x days, the half life is given by____

17. For a repeater in a PCM cable identify the correct sequence of actions amongst threshold/equalization/etc.

18. O/P of a delta modulator when a ramp input is fed to it.

19. Steady state error with ramp i/p for a type-0 system.

20. Creeping occurs in energy meters bcoz….

21. Ultrasonic method of flow measurement cannot be used in liquids with air bubbles/has less attenuation in air compared to liquid-identify the false statement (if any) among these.

22. Major cause of losses in a fibre optic cable: dispersion/total internal refraction/presence of core and cladding/…

23. Which layer in the OSI model is concerned with printer buffering,etc: network/session/transport/…

24. Given some function F(jω) calc its inverse CTFT.

25. Relation between laplace and z-transform: s=z/ s=ln z/ s=( ln z/T) /…

26. Maxm and minm probability error among ASK,PSK,FSK,DPSK etc

27. Which of the following is a non linear modulation scheme: PAM/QAM/PCM/…

28. Match the following functions: e-t , e-t + et, sin(πt) with causal and stable system, causal and unstable system, etc.

29. Given a ckt with a 50 Ω resistor in series between two voltage sources of 10 V and 5 V magnitude calc power delivered by 5 V source.

30. Laplace transform of e-3tu(t)+e2tu(-t).

31. Which photodetector has output affected by own intrinsic noise: PN/APD/PIN/all.

32. AC signal conditioning is used for inductive and capacitive/resistive/piezoelectric transducers/all of the above.

33. When I mode is added to proportional control system stability increases/ decreases/ steady state performance deteriorates/damping increases.

34. Reset control is another name for integral/derivative/proportional/…. Control.

35. Time response of system having transfer function 625/(s2+25) will be of the form…

36. Given some transfer function calc the peak response time.

37. The nyquist sampling rate of the function [sin(at)/t]2 will be…

38. The feedback topology that results in increased i/p and o/p impedance is current series/voltage series/current shunt voltage shunt.

39. Numerical on cardiac output calculation given heart rate and volume per beat.

40. In an ECG instrumentation amplifier the differential gain is provided by 1st stage/2nd stage/mismatched resistors/output stage.

41. Repeat ques 40 above for the classic 3-op amp instrum amplifier.

42. EMG signals are of the order of mV/V/μV/…

43. Computer assisted tomography is used for…

44. Numerical on electrostatic instrument, to calculate deflection given spring constant, torque etc.

45. To prevent loading of a ckt i/p impedance of a CRO should bee high/low/inductive/capacitive.

46. Addition of a zero to a 2nd order underdamped system results in increase/decrease of rise time and increase/decrease of peak overshoot.

47. For PI ctrl we obtain improved bandwidth/improved steady state performance/ worsened steady state performance/…

48. SNR of normal AM system is comparable/3 dB lower/3 dB higher/6 dB lower over DSB-SC and SSB system.

49. Which is an effective measure of the noise related performance of an amplifier: SNR/noise ratio/thermal noise/shot noise.

50. Given baseband signal freq and carrier freq calc which of the freq given will not be present for conventional AM.

51. Distinction between FM and PM at high frequencies.

52. Which of these has the least propagation delay RTL/ECL/I2L/CMOS.

53 Switching speed of CMOS is affected/unaffected by changes in supply voltage.

54. Which of these provides a measure of heart rate P/QRS complex/T/none of these.

55. Given a ckt of a logarithmic amplifier you had to identify what ckt was it.

56. JFET can operate in depletion/enhancement/both/none of the above modes.

57. When a BJT operates in saturation the junctions are fwd biased/reverse biased/…

58. BIBO stability criterion implies that poles are within/outside/on the unit circle.

59. For faithful amplification of low amplitude signals the cut-off/active/saturation regions of a transistor is used.

60. Lissajous pattern of a signal rotates 36 times per minute. if the oscillator frequency is 560 kHz then the unknown freq is…

61. % resolution of a 10 bit ADC.

62. To obtain 10 mV resolution on 5 V range how many bit DAC is to be used..


63. Why is LCD preferred to LED.

64. How will 0.6973 be displayed on 10 V range of a 4 ½ digit multimeter.

65. Which of the following cannot be used for an automatic feedback temp ctrl system thermocouple/thermometer/thermistor/IC sensor.

66. Y(n)=X(-n+3) is an example of a linear/non linear and shift variant/invariant system.

67. The falling body method is used to determine viscosity/humidity/….

68. Which of these methods of viscosity measurement gives greatest accuracy falling body method/rotating cylinder method/both/…

69. Some question on gas chromatography

70. A device having a rotor with 3 Y-connected coils and a stator is likely to be a synchro/RVDT/control transformer/…

71. In a twisted ring counter the initial count is 1000. after the 4th clock pulse its state will be….

72. A 240 kHz signal is given into a 3 bit binary ripple counter. The lowest o/p freq obtainable is….

73. For parity bit checking which of the following gates can be used XOR/NAND/OR/XNOR.

74. Why is a BJT called so..

75. Identify the expression for gauge factor of a strain gauge among the given options.

76. In a semiconductor strain gauge as tensile strain is applied what changes take place in the n and p areas..

77. How does a radioactive level gauging system work…

78. A capacitive transducer measuring level works on the principle of change in distance between plates/change in dielectric strength/…

79. For maximum power transfer in an AC circuit the condition to be satisfied is ZL+ZS=0/XL+XS=0/none of these/….where l and s refers to load and source respectively.

80. Find the transfer function from a block diagram.

81. Synchronous ctrs are preferred to asynchronous ctrs bcoz they are faster/glitches at the output can be avoided/both/none of these.

82. The lissajous figure formed on an oscilloscope looks like the English figure of 8. if the vertical channel input is 1 kHz the horizontal input freq is….

83. IE=IC for a transistor in saturation/cutoff/active/both saturation and active regions.

84. Reproducibility of measurements is called accuracy/precision/linearity/none of these.

85. Which of these is not strictly a static characteristic accuracy/precision/tolerance/linearity.

86. The shunt coil in a Q meter has resistance of the order of mΩ/Ω/kΩ/..

87. For measuring inductance of high Q coils the bridge used is Maxwell-wien/Schering/…

88. Which of these measures inductance in terms of capacitance Maxwell and hay/Maxwell and Schering/hay and Schering/…

89. In a flip-flop with preset and clear inputs both are applied simultaneously/clear is cleared when preset is applied/preset is cleared when clear is applied/….

90. What happens when the RET instruction is encountered by 8085

91. A 1024*8 memory chip needs how many address lines…

92. What happens when the PUSH instruction is encountered by 8051.

93. In FM relation between no of sidebands w.r.t. modulating freq

94. Numerical on DPSK.

95. A multiplexer accepts input data and provides one output all the time/one output at a time/many outputs at a time/many outputs all the time.

96. Pulse modulation is essentially a process of multiplexing/….

97. Wave shape is altered by clipper/clamper/voltage doubler/amplifier.

98. 4 signals of frequencies 100,100,200 and 400 Hz are sampled at nyquist rate and sent through TDM on a channel.the bandwidth of the channel is…

99. Superposition can be applied to a ckt with initial conditions/non-linear ckt/…

100. Kelvin’s double bridge is used for the measurement of…

101. Which of these is not an active transducer thermocouple/solar cell/RTD/none of these.

102. Oscillator using positive feedback has gain of 0/∞/undefined value/…

103. Wien bridge oscillator should initially have closed loop gain >3/<3/=3/…

104. Some question on gain margin and phase shift of a system.

105. Fourier series expansion of even function has sine terms only/cosine terms only/no odd harmonics/…

106. Full wave rectifier gives clean dc o/p/dc o/p with small ripple/positive half and inverted negative half of i/p as o/p.

107. Which of these values of ζ gives damped oscillations: 0/1/1.6/0.6

108. For a transformer of ratio 1:a and excited by a source V with impedances Z1 and Z2 on the primary and secondary side value of a for maxm power transfer should be..

109. Fourier transform of cos(ω0t) is…

110. At t=0 the step response of a 1st order system is….

111. 555 can be used as a monostable/astable/freq dividing ckt/all of these.

112. In a PT when the secondary is open ckted with the primary excited what will happen.

113. If a system is marginally stable then the nature of oscillations will be…

114. Linear encoders mostly use straight binary/BCD/gray code.

115. For an accelerometer working in displacement mode the ratio of forcing freq to natural freq should be…..

It may Contain questions with options like Both a) and b) . While solving this type of Question we may get some difficulty, but practicing more we can overcome this difficulty. All the best and do more Practice.

Aptitude Paper (70 Questions):

Most of the Aptitude questions we get straightforward. This Paper contains questions involving profit and loss, ratio-proportion, DI from pie-charts, one RC passage and other questions from verbal. Here we have to concern the Verbal questions, which will be quite confusing, as none of the options seemed to fit the question.

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General Studies Solved Paper for Bank,Railway,SSC,UPSC,PSC Exams

Posted by admin on May 21st, 2010

1.         With which one of the following has the B.K. Chaturvedi Committee dealt?

(a)        Review of Centres-States relations

(b)        Review of Delimitation Act

(c)        Tax reforms and measures to increase revenues

(d)        Price-reforms in the oil sector

ANSWER (D)

2.         Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event, is associated with and done for who of the following?

(a)        Bahubali

(b)        Buddha

(c)        Mahavir

(d)        Nataraja

ANSWER (A)

3.         Consider the following pairs:

Tradition                                              State

1.         Gatka a traditional marital art               :     Kerala

2.         Madhubani, a traditional painting           :     Bihar

3.         Singhwy Khababs Sindhu Darshan        :     Jammu and Kashmir

Festival

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched:

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           3 only

(c)           2 and 3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (C)

4.         Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

(Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

A.         Anna Hazare                                       1.   Lawyer

B.         Deepak Parekh                                   2.   Banker

C.         GVK Reddy                                         3.   Gandhian and Social activist

D.         Harish Salve                                       4.   Industrialist

Code:

A             B             C             D

(a)        1             2             4             3

(b)        1             4             2             3

(c)        3             2             4             1

(d)        3             4             2             1

ANSWER (C)

5.         Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II

(Famous Person)                                 (Well-Known as)

A.         Amrita Sher-Gil                                   1.   Dancer

B.         Bhimsen Joshi                                     2.   Painter

C.         Rukmini Devi Arundale                        3.   Poet

D.         Suryakant Tripathi Nirala                     4.   Singer

Code:

A             B             C             D

(a)        2             1             4             3

(b)        2             4             1             3

(c)        3             1             4             2

(d)        3             4             1             2

ANSWER (B)

6.         With reference to the scheme launched by the Union Government, consider the following statements:

1.         Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana

2.         Ministry of Textiles launched the Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)           1 only

(b)           2 only

(c)           Both 1 and 2

(d)           Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

7.         Consider the following pairs:

Persons                             Sports

1.         Anand Pawar              :        Chess

2.         Akhil Kumar                :        Boxing

3.         Shiv Shanker              :        Gold

Prasad Chowrasia

(a)           1 and 2 only

(b)           2 and 3 only

(c)           3 only

(d)           1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (B)

8.         Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I                                                    List II

(Book)                                                 (Author))

A.         In custody                                          1.   Amartya Sen

B.         Sea of Poppies                                    2.   Amitav Ghosh

C.         The Argumentative Indian                    3.   Anita Desai

D.         Unaccustomed Earth                            4.   Jhumpa Lahiri

Code:

A             B             C             D

(a)        4             1             2             3

(b)        4             2             1             3

(c)        3             2             1             4

(d)        3             1             2             4

ANSWER (C)

9.         Among the following, who are the Agaria community?

(a)        A traditional toddy tappers community

(b)        A traditional fishing community of Maharashtra

(c)        A traditional silk-weaving community of Karnataka

(d)        A traditional salt pan workers community of Gujarat.

ANSWER (A)

10.        Recently, which one of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list?

(a)        Dilwara Temple

(b)        Kalka-Shimla Railway

(c)        Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area

(d)        Vishkhapatnam to Araku valley railway line

ANSWER (B)

11.        Where is the famous Virupaksha temple located?

(a)        Bhadrachalam

(b)        Chidambaram

(c)        Hampi

(d)        Srikalahasti

ANSWER (C)

12.        Other than Venezuela, which one among the following from South America is a member of OPEC?

(a)        Argentina

(b)        Brazil

(c)        Ecuador

(d)        Bolivia

ANSWER (C)

13.        Under the administration of which- one of the following    is    the   Department   of   Atomic Energy ?

(a)        Prime Minister’s Office

(b)        Cabinet Secretariat

(c)        Ministry of Power

(d)        Ministry of Science and Technology

ANSWER (A)

14.        Consider the following pairs :

Large Bank                  Country of origin

1.         ABN Amro Bank    :          USA

2.         Barclays Bank         :          UK

3.         Kookmin Bank        :         Japan

Which ..of the   above .pairs   is/are   correctly matched ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        and 2

(d)        and 3

ANSWER (B)

15.        Which among the following has the world’s largest resorvos of Uranium ?

(a)        Australia

(b)        Canada

(c)        Russian Federation

(d)        USA

ANSWER (A)

16.        In the ‘Individual Satyagraha’, Vinoba Bhave was chosen as the first Satyagrahi. Who was the second ?

(a)        Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(b)        Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(c)        C. Rajagopal.achari

(d)        Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

ANSWER (B)

17.        Consider the following statements :

The for  Cripps Proposals include the provision

1.         Full independence for India.

2.         Creation of Constitution-making body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

18.        During the freedom struggle, Aruna Asaf Ali was a major woman organizer of underground activity in

(a)        Civil Disobedience Movement

(b)        Non-Cooperation Movement

(c)        Quit India Movement

(d)        Swadeshi Movement

ANSWER (C)

19.        With whose permission did the English set up their first factory in Surat ?

(a)        Akbar

(b)        Jahangir

(c)        Shahjahan

(d)        Aurangzeb

ANSWER (B)

20.        In a dry cell (battery), which of the following are used as electrolytes ?

(a)        Ammonium chloride and Zinc chloride

(b)        Sodium chloride and Calcium chloride

(c)        Magnesium chloride and Zinc chloride

(d)        Ammonium      chloride      and     Calcium chloride

ANSWER (A)

21.        Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural  satellites or moons ?

(a)        Jupiter

(b)        Mars

(c)        Saturn

(d)        Venus

ANSWER (A)

22.        Consider the following statements :

1.      Sweet  orange   plant   is   propagated   by grafting technique

2.      Jasmine plant is propagated by layering technique.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?       ‘

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

23.        Which one of the following types of waves are used in a night vision apparatus ?

(a)        Radio waves

(b)        Microwaves

(c)        Infra-red waves

(d)        None of the above

ANSWER (C)

24.        In the context of genetic disorders, consider the following :

A woman suffers from colour blindness while her husband does not suffer from it. They have a son and a daughter. In this context, which one of the following statements is most probabl) correct ?

(a)        Both      children     suffer     from      colour blindness.

(b)        Daughter .suffers  from  colour  blindness while son does not suffer from it.

(c)        Both children do not suffer from colour blindness.

(d)     Son suffers from colour blrndness while daughter does not suffer from it.

ANSWER (D)

25.        A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km duo East, after that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is he from the starting point”?

(a)        6 km   .

(b)        12 km

(c)        33 kin

.(d)       60 km

ANSWER (A)

26.        Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. C and D are standing close to each other alongside E. B is standing beside A only. A is fourth from P. Who are standing on the extremes ?

(a)        A and F

(b)        B and D

(c)        B and F

(d)        None of the above

ANSWER (C)

27.        Which  one  of the  following  is  used  as   an  explosive ?

(a)        Phosphorus Trichloride

(b)        Mercuric oxide

(c)        Graphite

(d)        Nitroglycerine

ANSWER (D)

28.        Consider the following :

1.         Camphor

2.         Chicory

3.         Vanilla

Which of the above is/are plant product(s) ?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)        3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)        1,2 and 3

ANSWER (D)

29.        In the context of Indian wild life, the flying fox is a

(a)        Bat

(b)        Kite

(c)        Stork

(d)        Vulture

ANSWER (A)

30.        During which Five Year Plan was the Emergency clamped, new elections took place and the Janata Party was elected ?

(a)        Third

(b)        Fourth

(c)        Fifth

(d)        Sixth

ANSWER (C)

31.        Which    one    of   the    following    is    not    a drug/pharma company ?

(a)        Chevron

(b)        Nicholas Piramal

(c)        Pfizer

(d)        Zydus Cadila

ANSWER (A)

32.        Who  of the  following  is  the  author  of the book “The Audacity of Hope” ?

(a)        Al Gore

(b)        Barack Obama

(c)        Bill Clinton

(d)        Hillary Clinton

ANSWER (B)

33.        A present group of nations known as G-8 started first as G-7, Which one among the following was not one of them ?

(a)        Canada

(b)        Italy

(c)        Japan

(d)        Russia

ANSWER (D)

34.        Consider the following statements :

1.         The   Baglihar. Power  Project   had   been constructed   within   the   parameters   of the Indus Water Treaty.

2.         The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/arc; correct, ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (A)

35.        When Leander Paes won the “mixed doubles” at the US Open in the year 2008, who of the following was his partner ?

(a)        Ana Ivanovic

(b)        Cara Black

(c)        Dinara Safina

(d)        Jelena Jankovic

ANSWER (B)

36.        In the context of Indian news in recent times; . what is MCX-SX ?

(a)        A kind of supercomputer

(b)        Title of Moon Impact Probe

(c)        Stock exchange

(d)        Nuclear-powered submarine

ANSWER (C)

37.        Which   one  of the   following   pairs   is   not correctly matched ?

(a)        Barbora Spotakova        :           Javelin throw

(b)        Pamela Jelimo    :           Weightligting

(c)        Sanya Richards  :           Sprint

(d)        Yelena Isinbayeva          :           Pole Vault

ANSWER (B)

38.        India has recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one landed such probe on the Moon earlier ?

(a)        Australia

(b)        Canada

(c)        China

(d)        Japan

ANSWER (C)

39.        Who of the following is a football player ?

(a)        Fernando Alonso

(b)        Kimi Raikkonen

(c)        Lewis Hamilton

(d)        Nicolas Anelka

ANSWER (D)

40.        Consider the following pairs :

Famous place               Country

1.         Cannes  :     France

2.         Davos   :     Denmark

3.         Roland Garros    :     The Netherlands

Which    of   the    pairs    given    above    is/arc correctly matched ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        1 and 2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (A)

41.        Among  the  following,  which  one  is  not  a football club ?

(a)        Arsenal

(b)        Aston Villa

(c)        Chelsea

(d)        Monte Carlo

ANSWER (D)

42.        The marine animal called dugong which is vulnerable to extinction is a/an:

(a)        Amphibian

(b)        Bony fish

(c)        Shark

(d)        Mammal

ANSWER (D)

43.        The  Dul  Hasti  Power Station is based on which one of the following rivers ?

(a)        Beas

(b)        Chenab

(c)        Ravi

(d)        Sutlej

ANSWER (B)

44.        Consider the following statements :

1.      V.K.    Krishna   Menon    Foundation   is based in New Delhi.

2.      The first recipient of the V.K. Krishna Menon Award  is  the  Chief Justice  of  India, KG. Balakrishnan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)     Both 1 and 2

(d)    Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

45.        Which      one       of    the    following    is    the country’s administrative capital/new federal administrative centre of Malaysia ?

(a)        Kota Bharu

(b)        Kuala Terongganu

(c)        Putrajaya

(d)        Taiping

ANSWER (C)

46.        Elephant  Pass,  which  is  frequently  in  the news,   is  mentioned  in  the  context  of the affairs of which one of the following ?

(a)        Bangladesh

(b)        India

(c)        Nepal

(d)        Sri Lanka

ANSWER (D)

47.        Consider the following countries :

1.         Brunei Darussalam

2.         East Timor

3.         Laos

Which of the above is/are member/members of ASEAN ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (C)

48.        Consider the following countries :

1.         Switzerland

2.         Malta

3.         Bulgaria

Which of the above are members of European Union?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)        2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (B)

49.        Consider the following countries :

1.         Australia

2.         Namibia

3.         Brazil

4.         Chile

Through which of the      above does the Tropic of Capricorn pass ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2, 3 and 4

(c)        1, 2 and 3

(d)        1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER (D)

50.        In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following ?

(a)        Aluminium

(b)        Chromium

(c)        Iron

(d)        Silicon

ANSWER (C)

51.        Which   one   of  the   following   pairs   is  not correctly matched ?

City      River

(a)        Berlin    Rhine

(b)        London  Thames

(c)        New York           Hudson

(d)        Vienna  Danube

ANSWER (A)

52.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I     List II

(Famous Temple)           (State)

A.         Vidyashankara temple    1. Andhra Pradesh

B.         Rajarani temple 2. Karnataka

C.         Kandariya Mahadeo        3. Madhya Pradesh

D.         Bhimesvara Temple        4. Orissa

Codes:

A          B          C          D

(a)        2          4          3          1

(b)        2          3          4          1

(c)        1          4          3          2

(d)        1          3          4          2

ANSWER (A)

53.        Consider the following statements :

1.         In the world, the tropical deserts occur along the western margins of continents within the trade wind belt.

2.         In India, the East Himalayan region gets high rainfall from north-east winds.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (A)

54.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Geographic feature)                      List II (Country)

A.         Great Victoria Desert      1.         Australia

B.         Grand Canyon                2.         Canada

C.         Lake Winnipeg   3.         New Zealand

D.         Southern Alps                4.         USA

Code :

A          B          C          D

(a)        1          2          4          3

(b)        1          4          2          3

(c)        3          2          4          1

(d)        3          4          2          1

ANSWER (B)

55.        Consider the following statements :

1.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the density of the population of India has increased more than three times.

2.         Between Census 1951 and Census 2001, the annual growth rate (exponential) of the population of India has doubled.

Which  of the statements given  abova is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

56.        Which one of the following rivers does not originate in India ?

(a)        Beas

(b)        Chenab

(c)        Ravi

(d)        Sutlej

ANSWER (D)

57.        Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttled are launched is located on the coast of

(a)        Florida

(b)        Virginia

(c)        North Carolina

(d)        South Carolina

ANSWER (A)

58.        At which one of the following places do two important rivers of India originate; while one of them flows towards north and merges with another important river flowing towards Bay of Bengal, the other one flows towards Arabian Sea ?

(a)        Amarkantak

(b)        Badrinath

(c)        Mahabaleshwar

(d)        Nasik

ANSWER (A)

59.        Who of the following scientists proved that the stars with mass less than 1.44 times the mass of the Sun end up as White Dwarfs when they die ?

(a)        Edwin Hubble

(b)        S. Chandrashekhar

(c)        Stephen Hawking

(d)        Steven Weinberg

ANSWER (B)

60.        Which one of the following brings out the publication called “Energy Statistics” from time to time?

(a)        Central Power Research Institute

(b)        Planning Commission

(c)        Power Finance Corporation Ltd.

(d)        Central Statistical Organization

ANSWER (D)

61.        Where    is    the headquarters    of   Animal Welfare Board of India located ?

(a)        Ahmedabad

(b)        Chennai

(c)        Hyderabad

(d)        Kolkata

ANSWER (B)

62.        Consider the following statements regarding Indian Planning :

1.         The Second Five-Year Plan emphasised on the establishment of heavy industries.

2.         The Third Five-Year Plan introduced the concept of import substitution as a strategy for industrialisation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

63.        Consider the following statements :

1.         The   National’  School   of Drama was set  up  by  Sangeet  Natak Akademi   in 1959.

2.         The highest honour conferred by the Sahitya Akademi on a writer is by electing him its Fellow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

64.        With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements :

1.         The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.

2.         Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

65.        A person has 4 coins each of different denomination. What is the number of different sums of money the person can form (using one or more coins at a time) ?

(a)        16

(b)        15

(c)        12

(d)        11

ANSWER (B)

66.        How many numbers lie between 300 and 500 in which 4 comes only one time ?

(a)        99

(b)        100

(c)        110

(d)        120

ANSWER (A)

67.        How many letters of the English alphabet (capitals) appear same when looked at in a mirror ?

(a)        9

(b)        10

(c)        11

(d)        12

ANSWER (C)

68.        How many three-digit numbers can be generated from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 such that the digits are1 in ascending order ?

(a)        80

(b)        81

(c)        83

(d)        84

ANSWER (D)

69.        There are four persons A, B, C, D; and A has some coins. A gave half of the coins to B and 4 more besides. B gave half of the coins to C and 4 more besides. C gave half of the coins to D and 4 more besides. Both B and D end up with same number of coins. How many coins did A have originally ?

(a)        96

(b)        84

(c)        72

(d)       64

ANSWER (C)

70.        While adding the first few continuous natural numbers, a candidate missed one of the numbers and wrote the answer as 177. What was the number missed ?

(a)        11

(b)        12

(c)        13

(d).       14

ANSWER (C)

71.        Four metal rods of lengths 78 cm, 104 cm, 117 cm and 169 cm are to be cut into parts of equal length. Each part must be as long as possible. What is the maximum number of  pieces that can be cut ?

(a)        27

(b)        36

(c)        43

(d)        480

ANSWER (B)

72.        In an examination, there are three subjects A, B and C. A student has to pass in each subject. 20% students failed iv A, 22% students failed in B and 16% failed in C. The total number of students passing the whole examination lies between

(a)        42% and 84%

(b)        42% and 78%

(c)        58% and 78%

(d)        58% and 84%

ANSWER (B)

73.        There is a family of 6 persons A, B, C, D, E and F. There are two married couples in the family. The family members are lawyer, teacher, salesman, engineer, accountant and doctor. D, the salesman is married to the lady teacher. The doctor is married to the lawyer. F, the accountant is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of A. E is the unmarried engineer. A is the grandmother of F. How is E related to F ?

(a)        Brother

(b)        Sister

(c)        Father

(d)        Cannot be established (cannot be determined)

ANSWER (D)

74.        How many times are an hour hand and a minute hand of a clock at right angles during their motion from 1.00 p.m. to 10.00 p.m. ?

(a)        9

(b)        10

(c)        18

(d)        20

Correct Answer: 16 (Remark Answer 16)

75.        There are 240 balls and n number of boxes B1, B2, B3, … , Bn. The balls are to be placed in the boxes such that should contain 4 balls more than B2, B2 should contain: 4 balls more than B3, and so on. Which one of the following cannot be the possible value of n ?

(a)        4

(b)        5

(c)        6

(d)        7

ANSWER (D)

76.        In the context of Indian defence, consider the following statements :

1.         The Shourya missile flies with a speed of more than 8 Mach.

2.         The range of Shourya missile is more than 1600 km.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

Note: It’s speed 6 Mach and range 600-700 km.

77.        WiMAX is related to which one of the following ?

(a)        Biotechnology

(b)        Space technology

(c)        Missile technology

(d)        Communication technology

ANSWER (D)

78.        For outstanding contribution to which one of the following’ fields is Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Prize given ?

(a)        Literature

(b)        Performing Arts

(c)        Science

(d)        Social Service

ANSWER (C)

79.        In making the saffron spice, which one of the following parts of the plant is used ?

(a)        Loaf

(b)        Petal

(c)        Sepal

(d)        Stigma

ANSWER (D)

80.        In the year 2008, which one of the following conducted a complex scientific experiment in which sub-atomic particles were accelerated to nearly the speed of light ?

(a)        European Space Agency

(b)        European   Organization   for   Nuclear Research

(c)        International Atomic Energy Agency

(d)        National     Aeronautics     and     Space Administration

ANSWER (B)

81.        A very big refugee camp called Dadaab, recently in the news, is located in

(a)        Ethiopia

(b)        Kenya

(c)        Somalia

(d)        Sudan

ANSWER (B)

82.        Consider the following names :

1.         Ike

2.         Kate

3.         Gustav

Which of the above are the names of hurricanes that had occurred very recently ?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)        2 and 3 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (C)

83.        In the context of alternative sources of energy, ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained from:

(a)        Potato

(b)        Rice

(c)        Sugarcane

(d)        Wheat

ANSWER (C)

84.        Consider the following famous names :

1.         Amrita Sher-Gil

2.         Bikash Bhattacharjee

3.         N.S. Bendre

4.         Subodh Gupta

Who of the above is/are well known as artist( s) ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        1 and 4 only

(c)        2, 3 and 4 only

(d)        1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER (C)

85.        NAMA-11 (Nama-11) group of countries frequently appears in the news in the context of the affairs of which one of the following ?

(a)        Nuclear Suppliers Group

(b)        World Bank

(c)        World Economic Forum

(d)        World Trade Organization

ANSWER (D)

86.        In the latter half of the year 2008, which one of the following countries pulled out of Commonwealth of Independent States ?

(a)        Azerbaijan

(b)        Belarus

(c)        Georgia

(d)        Kazakhstan

ANSWER (C)

87.        Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Persons in news)   List II (Countries they belong to)

A.         Luisa Dias Diogo            1.         Kenya

B.         Mwai Kibaki       2.         Mozambique

C.         Rupiah Banda    3.         Zambia

4.         Zimbabwe

Code :

A          B          C

(a)        1          2          3

(b)        2          1          3

(c)        2          1          4

(d)        1          2          4

ANSWER (B)

88.        Consider the following regions :

1.         Eastern Himalayas

2.         Eastern Mediterranean region

3.         North-western Australia

Which of the above is/are Biodiversity Hotspot(s) ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        1 and 2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (B)

Note: South West Australia instead of N.W. Australia

89.        With reference to the evolution of living organisms, which one of the following sequences is correct ?

(a)        Octopus – Dolphin – Shark

(b)        Pangolin — Tortoise — Hawk

(c)        Salamander – Python — Kangaroo

(d)        Frog – Crab – Prawn

ANSWER (C)

90.        The Panda belongs to the same family as that of

(a)        Bear

(b)        Cat

(c)        Dog

(d)        Rabbit

ANSWER (A)

91.        Consider the following statements:

1.         India does not have any deposits of Thorium.

2.         Kerala’s    monazito    sands    contain Uranium.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither I nor 2

ANSWER (B)

92.        Which one among the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ?

(a)        India

(b)        Nepal

(c)        Pakistan

(d)        Sri Lanka

ANSWER (A)

India: 324 person/sq.km.

Pakistan : 198

Srilanka: 298

93.        Consider the following statements :

1.         The discussions in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing of the Government of India Act of 1935.

2.         The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of an All India Federation to be based on a Union of the provinces of British India and the Princely States.

Which of the statements given above is/arc correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

94.        Consider the following:

1.         Fringe Benefit Tax

2.         Interest Tax

3.         Securities Transaction Tax

Which of the above is/are Direct Tax/Taxes ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        1 and 3 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (C)

95.        In India, who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council ?

(a)        Prime Minister

(b)        Minister of Water Resources

(c)        Minister of Environment and Forests

(d)        Minister of Science and Technology

ANSWER (A)

96.        Consider the following statements :

1.         There  are  no  east  flowing  rivers  in Kerala.

2.         There are no west flowing rivers in Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

97.        In collaboration with David Hare and Alexander Duff, who of the following established Hindu College at Calcutta ?

(a)        Henry Louis Vivian Derozio

(b)        Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

(c)        Kcshab Chandra Sen

(d)        Raja Rammohan Roy

ANSWER (D)

98.        Who of the following Prime Ministers sent Cripps Mission to India ?

(a)        James Ramsay MacDonald

(b)        Stanley Baldwin

(c)        Neville Chamberlain

(d)        Winston Churchill

ANSWER (D)

99.        Who of the following is the author of a collection of poems called “Golden Threshold” ?

(a)        Aruna Asaf Ali

(b)        Annie Besant

(c)        Sarojini Naidu

(d)        Vijayalakshmi Pandit

ANSWER (C)

100.      During the Indian Freedom Struggle, why did Rowlatt Act arouse popular indignation ?

(a)        It curtailed the freedom of religion

(b)        It   suppressed   the   Indian   traditional education

(c)        It    authorized    the    government    to imprison people without trial ‘

(d)        It curbed the trade union activities

ANSWER (C)

101.      Which one of the following began with the Dandi March ?

(a)        Home Rule Movement

(b)        Non-Cooperation Movement

(c)        Civil Disobedience Movement

(d)        Quit India Movement

ANSWER (C)

102.      Anekantavada is a core theory and philosophy of which one of the following ?

(a)        Buddhism

(b)        Jainism

(c)        Sikhism

(d)        Vaishnavism

ANSWER (B)

103.      With which one of the following movements is the slogan “Do or die” associated?

(a)        Swadeshi Movement

(b)        Non-Cooperation Movement

(c)        Civil Disobedience Movement

(d)        Quit India Movement

ANSWER (D)

104.      Who of the following founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association ?

(a)        Mahatma Gandhi

(b)        Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(c)        N.M. Joshi

(d)        J.B. Kripalani

ANSWER (A)

105.      In the context of the Indian freedom struggle, 16 October 1905 is well known for which one of the following reasons ?

(a)        The formal proclamation of Swadeshi Movement was made in Calcutta town hall

(b)        Partition of Bengal took effect

(c)        Dadabhai Naoroji declared that the goal of Indian National Congress was Swaraj

(d)        Lokmanya Tilak started Swadeshi Movement in Poona

ANSWER (B)

106.      Consider the following statements :

1.         Infant mortality rate takes into account the death of infants within a month after birth.

2.         Infant mortality rate is the number of infant deaths in a particular year per 100 live births during that year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

107.      If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:

(a)        1 month

(b)        3 months

(c)        6 months

(d)        1 year

ANSWER (C)

108.      Consider the following statements :

1.         The Governor of Punjab is concurrently the Administrator of Chandigarh.

2.         The Governor of Kerala is concurrently the Administrator of Lakshadweep.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (A)

1

109.      Consider the following pairs:

Organization    Location of Headquarters

1.         Asian Development Bank            :           Tokyo

2.         Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation           :           Singapore

3.         Association of South East Asian Nations    :           Bangkok

Which of the above pairs is/are correct matchd?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)        3 only

ANSWER (B)

110.      With   reference   to   I ho   United   Nations, consider the following statements :

1.         The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States.

2.         It is elected by a 2/3 majority of The General Assembly for a 3-year term.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

111.      In which one of the following places is the Shompen tribe found ?

(a)        Nilgiri Hills

(b)        Nicobar Islands

(c)        Spiti Valley

(d)        Lakshadweep Islands

ANSWER (B)

112.      Consider the following statements :

1.         The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President ot India upon the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.

2.         As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the State level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

113.      In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following:

(a)        Calcutta

(b)        Madras

(c)        Bombay

(d)        Delhi

ANSWER (B)

114.      With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements:

1.         An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a degree of a civil court and no appeal lies against thereto before any court.

2.         Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (A)

115.      With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:

1.         The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

2.         The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

116.      Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen   percent   of  the   total   number   of

(a)        90th

(b)        91st

(c)        92nd

(d)        93rd

ANSWER (B)

117.  Consider the following statements :

1.         Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lai Bahadur Shastri.

2.         The Members for CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (B)

118.      With    reference    to    Union    Government, consider the following statements :

1.         The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.

2.         The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (A)

119.      Consider the following statements:

1.         The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.

2.         The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

120.      Which one of the following Union Ministries implements the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety ?

(a)        Ministry of Science and Technology

(b)        Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(c)        Ministry of Environment and Forests

(d)        Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers

ANSWER (C)

121.      In a carrom board game competition, m boys and n girls (m > n > 1) of a school participate in which every student has to play exactly one game with every other student. Out of the total games played, it was found that in 221 games one player was a boy and the other-player was a girl.

Consider the following statements :

1.         The   total   number   of  students   that participated in the competition is 30.

2.         The number of games in which both players were girls is 78.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

122.      There are three cans A, B and C. The capacities of A, B and C are 6 litres, 10 litres and 16 litres respectively. The can C contains 16 litres of milk. The milk has to be divided in them using these three cans only.

Consider the following statements :

1.         It is possible to have 6 litres of milk each in can A and can B.

2.         It is possible to have 8 litres of milk each in can B and can C.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

123.      Consider the following pairs:

1.         Ashok Leyland   :     Hinduja Group

2.         Hindalco            :    A.V. Birla Group Industries

3.         Suzlon Energy   :    Punj Lloyd Group

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a)        1 and 2 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        1 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (A)

124.      In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a)        JP Morgan          :           Financial Services Chase

(b)        Roche Holding    :           Financial Services AG

(c)        WL Ross &          :           Private Equity Co.     Firm

(d)   Warburg Pincus       :           Private Equity Firm

ANSWER (B)

Note: Roche Holding       AG – Pharma

125.      Consider the following houses:

1.         Christie’s

2.         Osian’s

3.         Sotheby’s

Which of the above is/are’ auctioneer/ auctioneers ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        1 and 3 only

(c)        2 and 3 only

(d)        1, 2 and 3

ANSWER (D)

126.      In the context of C02 emission and Global Warming, what is the name of a market driven device under the UNFCC that allows developing countries to get funds/incentives from the developed countries to adopt, better technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions ?

(a)        Carbon Footprint

(b)        Carbon Credit Rating

(c)        Clean Development Mechanism

(d)        Emission Reduction Norm

ANSWER (C)

127.      The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following ?

(a)        Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro

(b)        Kyoto Protocol

(c)        Montreal Protocol

(d)        G-8 Summit, Hciligendamm

ANSWER (B)

128.      Who among the following is the founder of World Economic Forum ?

(a)        Klaus Schwab

(b)        John Kenneth Galbraith

(c)        Robert Zoellick

(d)        Paul Krugman

ANSWER (A)

129.      The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of

(a)        1 year

(b)        2 years

(c)        3 years

(d)        5 years

ANSWER (B)

130.      From which one of the following did Kosovo declare its independence ?

(a)        Bulgaria

(b)        Croatia

(c)        Macedonia

(d)        Serbia

ANSWER (D)

131.      Which one of the following pairs of countries fought wars over a region called Ogaden ?

(a)        Eritrea and Sudan

(b)        Ethiopia and Somalia

(c)        Kenya and Somalia

(d)        Ethiopia and Sudan

ANSWER (B)

132.      In the middle of the year 2008 the Parliament of which one of the following countries became the first in the world to enact a Climate Act by passing “The Climate Change Accountability Bill”?

(a)        Australia

(b)        Canada

(c)        Germany

(d)        Japan

ANSWER (B)

133.      Which one among the following has the highest energy ?

(a)        Blue light

(b)        Green light

(c)        Red light

(d)        Yellow light

ANSWER (A)

134.      In   the   context   of   independent   India’s economy, which one of the following was the earliest event to take place ?

(a)        Nationalisation of Insurance companies

(b)        Nationalisation of State Bank of India

(c)        Enactment of Banking Regulation Act

(d)        Introduction of First Five-Year Plan

ANSWER (C)

135.      Consider the following pairs :

Automobile Manufacturer        Headquarters

1.         BMW AG            :           USA

2.         Daimler AG        :           Sweden

3.         Renault S A.      :           France

4.         Volkswagen AG    :       Germany

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a)        1, 2 and 3

(b)        3 and 4

(c)        4 only

(d)        1, 2 and 4

ANSWER (B)

136.      Among the following Presidents of India, who was also the Secretary General of Non-Aligned Movement for some period ?

(a)        Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(b)        Varahagiri Venkatagiri

(c)        Giani Zail Singh

(d)        Dr. Shanker Dayal Sharma

ANSWER (C)

137.      Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Person)    List II (Organization)

A.         Anil Agarwal      1.         Gujarat Heavy Chemicals Ltd.

B.         Gautam H. Singhania      2.         Raymond Ltd.

C.         Sanjay Dalmia   3.         Vedanta Resources

D.         Venugopal Dhoot            4.         Videocon Group

Code :

A          B          C          D

(a)        3          1          2          4

(b)        4          1          2          3

(c)        3          2          1          4

(d)        4          2          1          3

ANSWER (C)

138.      To integrate cultural leaders into its meetings, which one of the following gives “Crystal Award”

(a)        Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation

(b)        International Bank for Reconstruction and Development

(c)        World Health Organization

(d)        World Economic Forum

ANSWER (D)

139.      In India, which one of the following States has the largest inland saline wetland?

(a)        Gujarat

(b)        Haryana

(c)        Madhya Pradesh

(d)        Rajasthan

ANSWER (D)

140.      Consider the following statements:

1.         MMTC Limited is India’s largest international trading organization.

2.         Neelachal Ispat Nigam Limited has been set up by MMTC jointly with the Government of Orissa.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)        1 Only

(b)        2 Only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (C)

141.      In which one of the following States has India’s largest private sector sea port been commissioned recently ?

(a)        Andhra Pradesh

(b)        Karnataka

(c)        Kerala

(d)        Tamil Nadu

ANSWER (A)

(Krishnapattanam, Nellore)

142.      Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(a)        Japan    :           Nikkei

(b)        Singapore          :           Shcomp

(c)        UK        :           FTSE

(d)        USA      :           Nasdaq

ANSWER (B)

143.      Consider the following statements :

1.         INS Sindhughosh is an aircraft carrier.

2.         INS Viraat is a submarine.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

144.      Consider the following statements:

1.         The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends the Minimum Support Prices for 32 crops.

2.         The Union Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution has launched the National Food Security Mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a)        1 only

(b)        2 only

(c)        Both 1 and 2

(d)        Neither 1 nor 2

ANSWER (D)

Note: 26 crops, National food security mission was launched by Ministry of Agriculture)

145.      In India, the ports are categorized as major and non-major ports. Which one of the following is a non-major port ?

(a)        Kochi (Cochin)

(b)        Dahej

(c)        Paradip

(d)        New Mangalore

ANSWER (B)

146.      Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which the Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted ?

(a)        To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities

(b)        To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure

(c)        To frame a policy on the production of genetically modified organisms

(d)        To suggest measures to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union Budget

ANSWER (B)

147.      The   brothers   Umakant and Ramakant Gundecha are:

(a)        Dhrupad vocalists

(b)        Kathak dancers

(c)        Sarod macstros

(d)        Tabla players

ANSWER (A)

148.      Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Famous person)            List II (Well-known for)

A.         Mandakini Amte 1. Theatre direction

B.         Neelam Mansingh Chowdhry        2. Social service and community leadership

C.         Romila Thapar   3. Dance

D.         Vanashree Rao  4. History writing

Codes:

A          B          C          D

(a)        2          1          4          3

(b)        2          4          1          3

(c)        3          1          4          2

(d)        3          4          1          2

ANSWER (A)

149.      With reference to Stree Shakti Puraskar, for which of the following is “Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar Award” given?

(a)        Administrative skills

(b)        Achievements in Scientific Research

(c)        Achievements in Sports and Games

(d)        Courage and valour

ANSWER (A)

150.      In which State is the Buddhist site Tabo Monastery located?

(a)        Arunachal Pradesh

(b)        Himachal Pradesh

(c)        Sikkim

(d)        Uttarakhand

ANSWER (B)


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Easy Mathematics

Posted by admin on May 14th, 2010

Faster and accurate calculation of data is very important in solving DI questions. While solving questions in the exam, pressure is very high and so accurate calculation of results is very necessary.

Vedic Maths is one such way in which an aspirant can do calculations in a much faster and easier way to achieve accurate results.

To begin with Vedic Maths, first find the square of 94. If you calculate the result by normal calculation, you would require about 10 seconds to find the result. Now see this…

What is the difference between 100 and 94. Its 6. Subtract 6 from 94 and the result is 88. Find square of 6 and write it with 88. The result is 8836. Isn’t this the square of 94?

Well that was quick. :) Now find the square of 91?

Difference between 100 and 91 is 9 and subtract 9 from 91 = 82 and write square of 9 (which is 81) with 82 and answer is 8281.

100 – 91 = 9

91 – 9 = 82, Multiply 82 with 100 = 8200 ——— (i)

9 * 9 = 81 ———— (ii)

Now add (i) and (ii)

8200 + 81 = 8281 which is the square of 91.

Here we have taken 100 as the base ( a base is a number with respect to which we are doing our calculations). Any number can be a base. Lets take 93 as a base to calculate square of 91.

93 – 91 = 2 ( Here the difference is 2. Subtract the difference from the original number)

91 – 2 = 89. Now multiply this number with the base. 89 * 93 = 8277 ————— (i)

Find square of 2 = 4 and add it with (i). The result is 8277 + 4 = 8281

The result is same but in this case the calculation is a bit difficult and so we generally take 100 as base. Now calculate square of 102. Difference is -2 and subtract -2 from 102, the result is 102 – (-2) = 104 and multiply it with base 100 = 104*100 = 10400 and add square of (-2) and so the answer is 10404.

For numbers like 989, we can take 1000 as a base to find the answer.

But what do we do for numbers like 46? In this case we take base 50 and subtract the difference from the number.

50 – 46 = 4,   46 – 4 = 42. Now multiply this number by 100 and divide it by 2 ( you can simply multiply with 50). (42 * 100)/2 = 42 * 50 = 2100. Now add square of 4 = 2116.

Similarly take 500 as base for numbers like 492.

Thus we can easily and accurately calculate squares of numbers.

Now lets study another concept. In case we have to multiply two numbers ( like 24 and 26) whose units digit when added equals 10 ( 4 + 6 ), the answer can be found by multiplying the units digit and multiplying the tens digit with the next number and write the two numbers together.

Lets find product of 24 * 26. The sum of units digit is 10 and 4 * 6 = 24. Multiply 2 ( the tens digit of both numbers ) with the next integer ( which is 3). 2 * 3 = 6 and write the two numbers together, 624.

Find product of 63 and 67. Multiply units digit ( 3 * 7 = 21) and tens digit with the integer which comes after it, which is 7 in this case. ( 6 * 7 = 42). Now write the two numbers together to form the answer, i.e, 4221. Therefore, 63 * 67 = 4221.

For finding square of a number ending with 5, we can take the number as the product with itself. For e.g square of 45 can be written as 45 * 45. The units digit add to form 10 and so we can apply the concept we learnt just now.

5 * 5 = 25 and 4 * 5  = 20. Therefore, the answer is 2025.

Lets find square of 85. We will find the answer by both the methods discussed above.

Method 1

Take 100 as base. 100 – 85 = 15. Subtract 15 from 85  = 70 and now find square of 15 = 225. Multiply 70 with the base = 7000 and add 225 to 7000 = 7225.

Method 2

Square of 5 is 25. Multiply 8 with its next integer ( which is 9 ) = 72. Write both the numbers together = 7225.

Both the methods give answer 85 * 85 = 7225. Thus, we have now discussed 2 methods which help us to make calculations faster and easier.

You can practice some questions written below.

1. 115           2. 93          3. 38           4. 992             5. 106          6. 487

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Medical Terms and Treatments-Allopathy

Posted by admin on May 14th, 2010

Allopathy is a term used by homeopaths, naturopaths, chiropractors and other advocates of alternative health practices to refer to traditional medicine. My Random House Dictionary of the English Language (unabridged edition) defines allopathy as “the method of treating disease by the use of agents that produce effects different from those of the disease treated (opposed to homeopathy).” The word was invented by homeopath Samuel Hahnemann as a term for those who are other than homeopaths. In America, the term has not caught on and is used mainly by “alternative” practitioners and some osteopaths.
Allopathy, as it turns out, was another invention of homeopath Samuel Hahnemann, being his term for all medical theories and practices which didn’t fit into his like cures like superstition. (whereas “homeo” means “same, “allo” means “other”) Today, allopathy is sometimes applied to the kind of medicine learned and practiced by M.D. degree physicians, although many of them may not know it

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State-Bank-Of-India-Clerk-Interview-Questions-2010

Posted by admin on May 1st, 2010

Why do you want to enter banking?

* You need to talk about Banking – what the interviewer seeks for is a person who is flexible to be along with the given timings, someone who can cope up with writing bits and bobs or a person who can benefit them with more development .Your answer can have following bulleted points.

  • Banking is a fast changing environment

  • Retail banking is now very competitive – from telephone banking, retailers and etc Banking is thus now largely sales driven.

# You can even talk about IT getting changes and clearing banks offers a wide range of career opportunities for graduates – not just in branch banking but also in financial services, consultancy and corporate banking.

Have you applied to any other areas apart from banking?

Here off course your answer will hold some other finance or sales and marketing careers – insurance or accountancy, altogether these careers should have skills related to banking.

How do you feel about committing yourself to another three years of exams?

The professional examinations that you will almost certainly be required to take as part of your training are not always difficult in themselves, but do require determination and focus- especially as much of your study will be done in the evenings after a hard days work.

You should also be aware of the range of qualifications open to you – many of the large clearing banks offer the opportunity to gain qualifications in marketing, personnel or accountancy – not just banking.

Tell me about an experience in which you had to use tact?
Tact and diplomacy are important qualities in retail banking – the customer is (almost!) always right. You may have to tell an account holder diplomatically why they can’t have a loan for example, without provoking them into moving their account elsewhere.
To answer this type of question, think through everything you have done in the last five years – school, university, sports, clubs, societies, travel, vacation jobs etc. and try to think of situations where you had to demonstrate this and other qualities – do this before your interview.
If you have completed a number of employer application forms, then you should already have done this as this type of question is now common on application forms.

Who are our major competitors and what differences do you notice in our products?
The company will be expecting that you have done your research on the industry generally. You should be familiar with the bank’s products and services – literature on these can be picked up at any branch. Read the banks brochures and annual reports – these may be in the careers information room.

Be aware of current trends in the market and try to find out what each bank is doing in these areas.

What is SLR?
Every bank is required to maintain at the close of business every day, a minimum proportion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities as liquid assets in the form of cash, gold and un-encumbered approved securities. The ratio of liquid assets to demand and time liabilities is known as Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Present SLR is 24%. (reduced w.e.f. 8/11/208, from earlier 25%) RBI is empowered to increase this ratio up to 40%. An increase in SLR also restrict the bank’s leverage position to pump more money into the economy.

What is SLR ? (For Non Bankers)
SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio. This term is used by bankers and indicates the minimum percentage of deposits that the bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. Thus, we can say that it is ratio of cash and some other approved to liabilities (deposits) It regulates the credit growth in India.

What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate

What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate

Thus, we can conclude that Repo Rate signifies the rate at which liquidity is injected in the banking system by RBI, whereas Reverse repo rate signifies the rate at which the central bank absorbs liquidity from the banks.

What is the difference between Bank Rate and Repo Rate?

Bank Rate vs Repo Rate
Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI allows finance to commercial banks in India. There are difference types of refinance that can be availed by banks and these are linked to Bank Rate. Thus, banks can borrow at this rate only to the extent of their eligibility for refinance.

On the other hand, Repo is a money market instrument, which enables collateralised short term borrowing and lending through sale/purchase operations in debt instruments. Under a repo transaction, a holder of securities sells them to an investor with an agreement to repurchase at a predetermined date and rate. In the case of a repo, the forward clean price of the bonds is set in advance at a level which is different from the spot clean price by adjusting the difference between repo interest and coupon earned on the security. In the money market, this transaction is nothing but collateralised lending as the terms of the transaction are structured to compensate for the funds lent and the cost of the transaction is the repo rate. Thus, a bank can borrow under repo provided he has the extra securities which it can lend temporarily to RBI for borrowing short term funds.

What is relation between Inflation and Bank interest Rates?
Now a days, you might have heard lot of these terms and usage on inflation and the bank interest rates. Bank interest rate depends on many other factors, out of that the major one is inflation. Whenever you see an increase on inflation, there will be an increase of interest rate also

What is a bank?
A bank is a financial institution whose primary activity is to act as a payment agent for customers and to borrow and lend money. It is an institution for receiving, keeping, and lending money

What is the activity of Banks?
Banks act as payment agents by conducting checking or current accounts for customers, paying cheques drawn by customers on the bank, and collecting cheques deposited to customers’ current accounts. Banks also enable customer payments via other payment methods such as telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, and ATM.

Banks borrow money by accepting funds deposited on current account, accepting term deposits and by issuing debt securities such as banknotes and bonds. Banks lend money by making advances to customers on current account, by making installment loans, and by investing in marketable debt securities and other forms of money lending.

Banks provide almost all payment services, and a bank account is considered indispensable by most businesses, individuals and governments. Non-banks that provide payment services such as remittance companies are not normally considered an adequate substitute for having a bank account.

Banks borrow most funds from households and non-financial businesses, and lend most funds to households and non-financial businesses, but non-bank lenders provide a significant and in many cases adequate substitute for bank loans, and money market funds, cash management trusts and other non-bank financial institutions in many cases provide an adequate substitute to banks for lending savings to.

What is Banking Business?
“Banking Business” means the business of receiving money on current or deposit account, paying and collecting cheques drawn by or paid in by customers, the making of advances to customers, and includes such other business as the Authority may prescribe for the purposes of this Act.

What is Accounting for Bank Accounts?
Bank statements are accounting records produced by banks under the various accounting standards of the world. Under GAAP and IFRS there are two kinds of accounts: debit and credit. Credit accounts are Revenue, Equity and Liabilities. Debit Accounts are Assets and Expenses. This means you credit credit accounts to increase their balances and you debit debit accounts to increase their balances.

This also means you debit your savings account every time you deposit money into it (and the account is normally in deficit) and you credit your credit card account every time you spend money from it (and the account is normally in credit).

However, if you read your bank statement, it will say the opposite- that you have credited your account when you deposit money, and you debit when you withdraw it. If you have cash in your account you have a positive or credit balance and if you are overdrawn it will say you have a negative or a deficit balance.

The reason for this is because the bank, and not you, has produced the bank statement. Your savings might be your assets, but it is the bank’s liability, so your savings account is a liability account which is a credit account and should have a positive credit balance. Your loans are your liabilities but the bank’s assets so they are debit accounts which should have a negative balance.

Below where bank transactions, balances, credits and debits are discussed, they are done so from the viewpoint of the account holder which is traditionally what most people are used to seeing.

What are the commercial roles of the Banks ?

However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:

  • However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:

  • issue of banknotes (promissory notes issued by a banker and payable to bearer on demand)

  • processing of payments by way of telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, internet banking or other means

  • issuing bank drafts and bank cheques

  • accepting money on term deposit

  • lending money by way of overdraft, installment loan or otherwise

  • providing documentary and standby letters of credit (trade finance), guarantees, performance bonds, securities underwriting commitments and other forms of off balance sheet exposures

  • safekeeping of documents and other items in safe deposit boxes

  • currency exchange

  • sale, distribution or brokerage, with or without advice, of insurance, unit trusts and similar financial products as a ‘financial supermarket’

What are the Economic functions of Banks?

The economic functions of banks include:
1. issue of money, in the form of banknotes and current accounts subject to cheque or payment at the customer’s order. These claims on banks can act as money because they are negotiable and/or repayable on demand, and hence valued at par and effectively transferable by mere delivery in the case of banknotes, or by drawing a cheque, delivering it to the payee to bank or cash.

2. netting and settlement of payments — banks act both as collection agent and paying agents for customers, and participate in inter-bank clearing and settlement systems to collect, present, be presented with, and pay payment instruments. This enables banks to economise on reserves held for settlement of payments, since inward and outward payments offset each other. It also enables payment flows between geographical areas to offset, reducing the cost of settling payments between geographical areas.

3. credit intermediation – banks borrow and lend back-to-back on their own account as middle men

4. credit quality improvement – banks lend money to ordinary commercial and personal borrowers (ordinary credit quality), but are high quality borrowers. The improvement comes from diversification of the bank’s assets and the bank’s own capital which provides a buffer to absorb losses without defaulting on its own obligations. However, since banknotes and deposits are generally unsecured, if the bank gets into difficulty and pledges assets as security to try to get the funding it needs to continue to operate, this puts the note holders and depositors in an economically subordinated position.

5. maturity transformation — banks borrow more on demand debt and short term debt, but provide more long term loans. In other words; banks borrow short and lend long. Bank can do this because they can aggregate issues (e.g. accepting deposits and issuing banknotes) and redemptions (e.g. withdrawals and redemptions of banknotes), maintain reserves of cash, invest in marketable securities that can be readily converted to cash if needed, and raise replacement funding as needed from various sources (e.g. wholesale cash markets and securities markets) because they have a high and more well known credit quality than most other borrowers.

What are the different channels of Banking you use in your daily life ?

Banks offer many different channels to access their banking and other services:

  • A branch, banking centre or financial centre is a retail location where a bank or financial institution offers a wide array of face-to-face service to its customers.

  • ATM is a computerized telecommunications device that provides a financial institution’s customers a method of financial transactions in a public space without the need for a human clerk or bank teller. Most banks now have more ATMs than branches, and ATMs are providing a wider range of services to a wider range of users. For example in Hong Kong, most ATMs enable anyone to deposit cash to any customer of the bank’s account by feeding in the notes and entering the account number to be credited. Also, most ATMs enable card holders from other banks to get their account balance and withdraw cash, even if the card is issued by a foreign bank.

  • Mail is part of the postal system which itself is a system wherein written documents typically enclosed in envelopes, and also small packages containing other matter, are delivered to destinations around the world. This can be used to deposit cheques and to send orders to the bank to pay money to third parties. Banks also normally use mail to deliver periodic account statements to customers.

  • Telephone banking is a service provided by a financial institution which allows its customers to perform transactions over the telephone. This normally includes bill payments for bills from major billers (e.g. for electricity).

  • Online banking is a term used for performing transactions, payments etc. over the Internet through a bank, credit union or building society’s secure website.

How many type of banks there are ?
Banks’ activities can be divided into retail banking, dealing directly with individuals and small businesses; business banking, providing services to mid-market business; corporate banking, directed at large business entities; private banking, providing wealth management services to high net worth individuals and families; and investment banking, relating to activities on the financial markets. Most banks are profit-making, private enterprises. However, some are owned by government, or are non-profits.

Central banks are normally government owned banks, often charged with quasi-regulatory responsibilities, e.g. supervising commercial banks, or controlling the cash interest rate. They generally provide liquidity to the banking system and act as the lender of last resort in event of a crisis.

Type of Retail Banks

  • Commercial bank: the term used for a normal bank to distinguish it from an investment bank. After the Great Depression, the U.S. Congress required that banks only engage in banking activities, whereas investment banks were limited to capital market activities. Since the two no longer have to be under separate ownership, some use the term “commercial bank” to refer to a bank or a division of a bank that mostly deals with deposits and loans from corporations or large businesses.

  • Community Banks: locally operated financial institutions that empower employees to make local decisions to serve their customers and the partners

  • Community development banks: regulated banks that provide financial services and credit to under-served markets or populations.

  • Postal savings banks: savings banks associated with national postal systems.

  • Private banks: manage the assets of high net worth individuals.

  • Offshore banks: banks located in jurisdictions with low taxation and regulation. Many offshore banks are essentially private banks.

  • Savings bank: in Europe, savings banks take their roots in the 19th or sometimes even 18th century. Their original objective was to provide easily accessible savings products to all strata of the population. In some countries, savings banks were created on public initiative, while in others socially committed individuals created foundations to put in place the necessary infrastructure. Nowadays, European savings banks have kept their focus on retail banking: payments, savings products, credits and insurances for individuals or small and medium-sized enterprises. Apart from this retail focus, they also differ from commercial banks by their broadly decentralised distribution network, providing local and regional outreach and by their socially responsible approach to business and society.

  • Building societies and Landesbanks: conduct retail banking.

  • Ethical banks: banks that prioritize the transparency of all operations and make only what they consider to be socially-responsible investments.

  • Islamic banks: Banks that transact according to Islamic principles.

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Previous Years Question Papers Package for you

Posted by admin on May 1st, 2010

Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam, 2009

Combined Medical Services Exam, 2009

Combined Defence Services Exam 2009

National Defence Academy & Naval Academy Exam  2009

Engineering Services Exam, 2009

Special Class Railway Apprentices Exam, 2009

Indian Forest Service Exam, 2009

Central Police Force Assistant Commandant Exam 2009.

Indian-Economic-Service Exam,2009

Indian-Statistical-Service Exam, 2009

Geologists-Exam-2009

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SBI – Clerk Recruitment Exam 2009 General English

Posted by admin on April 8th, 2010

Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.

‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.

After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’

The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)

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SBI Bank Exam-Previous Question Papers-Computer Paper

Posted by admin on April 8th, 2010

1. A keyboard is this kind of device—
(A) black
(B) input
(C) output
(D) word Processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. IT stands for—
(A) information Technology
(B) integrated Technology
(C) intelligent Technology
(D) interesting Technology
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most expensive computers ?
(A) Personal Computers
(B) Supercomputers
(C) Laptops
(D) Notebooks
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. A collection of related information sorted and dealt with as a unit is a—
(A) disk
(B) data
(C) file
(D) floppy
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. The process of a computer receiving information from a server on the Internet is known as—
(A) pulling
(B) pushing
(C) downloading
(D) transferring
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Which part of the computer helps to store information ?
(A) Disk drive
(B) Keyboard
(C) Monitor
(D) Printer
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. ………………is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Executing
(D) Decoding
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. The role of a………generally is to determine a buyer’s needs and match it to the correct hardware and software.
(A) computer Scientist
(B) computer sales representative
(C) computer consultant
(D) corporate trainer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following groups consist of only output devices ?
(A) Scanner, Printer, Monitor
(B) Keyboard, Printer, Monitor
(C) Mouse, Printer, Monitor
(D) Plotter, Printer, Monitor
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. The rectangular area of the screen that displays a program, data, and/or information is a—
(A) title bar
(B) button
(C) dialog box
(D) window
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. A(n)………contains commands that can be selected.
(A) pointer
(B) menu
(C) icon
(D) button
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. An error is also known as—
(A) bug
(B) debug
(C) cursor
(D) icon
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. Arithmetic Operations—
(A) involve matching one data item to another to determine if the first item is greater than, equal to, or less than the other item
(B) sort data items according to standard, predefined criteria in ascending order or descending order
(C) use conditions with operators such as AND, OR and NOT
(D) include addition, subtraction, multiplication and division
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Sending an e-mail is similar to—
(A) picturing an event
(B) narrating a story
(C) writing a letter
(D) creating a drawing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

15. Promotion in Marketing means—
(A) passing an examination
(B) elevation from one grade to another
(C) selling the products through various means
(D) selling the product in specific areas
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. Microsoft Word is an example of—
(A) an operating system
(B) a processing device
(C) application software
(D) an input device
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. Sources of Sales Leads are—
(A) Data Mining
(B) Market Research
(C) Media Outlets
(D) Promotional Programs
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

18. Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as—
(A) storage
(B) output
(C) input
(D) information
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

19. Which part of the computer displays the work done ?
(A) RAM
(B) printer
(C) monitor
(D) ROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. One of the methods for Market Monitoring is—
(A) to watch TV serials
(B) to discuss with other sales persons
(C) to monitor media outlets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. Market Expansion means—
(A) hiring more staff
(B) firing more staff
(C) buying more products
(D) buying more companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

22. A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a—
(A) program
(B) command
(C) user response
(D) processor
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. Effective marketing helps in—
(A) developing new products
(B) creating a competitive environment
(C) building demand for products
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

24. Which is the part of a computer that one can touch and feel ?
(A) Hardware
(B) Software
(C) Programs
(D) Output
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A Call in Marketing means—
(A) to phone the customers
(B) to visit the customers
(C) to visit the marketing site
(D) to call on prospective customers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. Delivery Channel means—
(A) maternity wards
(B) handing over the products to the buyers
(C) places where products are made available to the buyers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

27. Processing involves—
(A) inputting data into a computer system
(B) transforming input into output
(C) displaying output in a useful manner
(D) providing relevant answers
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

28. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of Internet Banking.
(A) All the customers
(B) All the educated customers
(C) All the computer educated customers
(D) Only creditors
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

29. Innovation mean—
(A) Product Designing
(B) New ideas
(C) Impulse
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. One of the following is a target group for the marketing of educational loan.
(A) All the customers
(B) Students
(C) Only poor students
(D) Students having promising educational track record
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)

31. Service after sale is not the function of—
(A) Marketing staff
(B) Seller
(C) Director of the company
(D) Employees of the company
(E) All of the above are wrong
Ans : (A)

32. If done through………the rural marketing would be more effective.
(A) fairs
(B) village fairs
(C) door to door campaign
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Market Survey means—
(A) Market Research
(B) Market Planning
(C) Marketing Strategies
(D) Market Monitering
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

34. ………can be done through digital Banking ?
(A) Mobile phone
(B) Internet
(C) Telephone
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

35. A good seller should have the following quality/qualities ?
(A) Devotion to the work
(B) Submissive
(C) Sympathy
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. The rural marketing is not required because—
(A) rural people do not understand marketing
(B) its not practical from the cost point of view
(C) it is sheer wastage of time
(D) All are wrong
(E) All are correct
Ans : (D)

37. Planned-cost service means—
(A) Costly products
(B) Extra profit on the same cost
(C) Extra work by seller
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. Internet marketing means—
(A) Self-marketing
(B) Core Groups monitering
(C) Employees marketing
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

39. The aim of successful marketing is—
(A) to increase the sale
(B) to increase the profit
(C) to increase the output of sellers
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. The networking becomes……through networking.
(A) very difficult
(B) dull
(C) easy
(D) has no role in marketing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

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