Part I (Reasoning) Bank Clerk

1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code?

(1) %4$#

(2) $3%#

(3) $64%

(4) %3$#

(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother’s daughter’. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?

(1) Sister

(2) Niece/ daughter

(3) Aunt

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) Pineapple

(2) Guava

(3) Grapes

(4) Papaya

(5) Pear

5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?

(1) S

(2) B

(3) A

(4) K

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?

(1) DIBJS

(2) SBJID

(3) SHBGD

(4) SJBID

(5) None of these

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) FH

(2) KM

(3) PR

(4) CE

(5) JM

8. If ‘ P   Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’, ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ and ‘P   Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) Mother

(3) Niece

(4) Aunt

(5) None of these

9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) 17

(2) 19

(3) 23

(4) 29

(5) 27

11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

12. If ‘’ means ‘x’, $ means ‘+’, # means ‘ ‘ and ‘©’ means ‘-’ then what is the value of

360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?

(1) 253

(2) 242

(3) 247

(4) 285

(5) None of these

13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?

(1) green

(2) yellow

(3) red

(4) pink

(5) None of these

14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.

(1) A

(2) E

(3) L

(4) X

(5) Y

15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?

(1) 19

(2) 20

(3) 21

(4) 18

(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:

‘A © B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’

‘A « B’ means ‘A is greater than B’

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J

Conclusions: I. V © L

II. S © J

17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H

Conclusions: I. M #H

II. R © H

18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M

Conclusions: I. H «M

II. H «G

19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L

Conclusions: I. R @ T

II. J @ l

20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F

Conclusions: I. W $ K

II. W @ K

Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.

Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

21. Statements:

Some pens are books.

All books are pencils.

All pencils are jars.

Conclusions:

I. All books are jars.

II. Some pens are pencils.

22. Statements:

Some bowls are spoons

Some spoons are forks

All forks are plates.

Conclusions:

I. Some bowls are forks.

II. Some spoons are plates.

23. Statements:

Some bottles are jars.

All jars are buckets.

All buckets are tanks.

Conclusions:

I. All jars are tanks.

II. Some buckets are tanks.

24. Statements:

Some phones are mobiles.

Some mobiles are computers.

Some computers are keys.

Conclusions:

I. Some phones are keys.

II. Some computes are phones.

25. Statements:

All papers are files.

Some files are folders.

All folders are bags.

Conclusions:

I. Some files are bags.

II. Some papers are folders.

Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?

I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.

II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.

27. What is the code for ‘Play’ in the code language?

I. In the code language ‘play and dance’ is written as ‘ka to pe’

II. In the code language enjoy the dance’ is written as ‘pe jo ra’.

28. How many children are there in the class?

I. Vandana’s rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.

II. Nandini’s rank is seventeenth from the top.

29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?

I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.

II. Neeta is not the tallest.

30. How many sons does Ramesh have?

I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.

II. R is brother of H.

Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:

5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) $9F

(2) R6%

(3) 8PU

(4) #B4

(5) 3BJ

32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?

(1) L

(2) R

(3) 6

(4) I

(5) None of these

33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?

(1) 6RI

(2) %R6

(3) R16

(4) %6R

(5) None of these

34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?

(1) K

(2) @

(3) P

(4) #

(5) None of these

35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.

Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.

36. Who is to the immediate left of L?

(1) Q

(2) O

(3) K

(4) N

(5) None of these

37. Who is to the immediate left of K?

(1) N

(2) J

(3) Q

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?

(1) Second to the right of K

(2) To the immediate left of K

(3) To the immediate right of M

(4) To the immediate right of K

(5) None of these

39. Who is third to the right of P?

(1) L

(2) J

(3) Q

(4) N

(5) None of these

40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?

(1) PJO

(2) OPJ

(3) OPM

(4) MPO

(5) None of these

Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

ANSWERS

1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)

Part IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) Bank Clerk

Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it.

Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.

He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honour.

151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?

(1) For expanding his empire

(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent

(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals

(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature

(5) None of these

152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?

(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals’ society

(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river

(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous

(4) It badly affected his health

(5) None of these

153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?

(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him

(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses

(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses

(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional

(5) None of these

154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?

(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs

(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests

(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals

(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved

(5) None of these

155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?

(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world

(2) A person with religious mindset

(3) A social reformer

(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner

(5) A famous priest popular among the British

156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?

(a) A river in Western Luanda

(b) Scotland

(c) The origin of river Nile

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a) only

(5) (b) only

157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?

(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone’s dead body.

(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.

(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) only

(5) (c) only

158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result

(a) People in the world lost contact with him

(b) His whereabouts were not known.

(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

(5) None of these

159. In what way Livingstone’s exploration efforts were different from those of others?

(1) Livingstone’s exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests

(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world

(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes

(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population

(5) None of these

Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

160. REST

(1) remainder

(2) relax

(3) respite

(4) discovery

(5) most

161. EXPLORATION

(1) execution

(2) cultivation

(3) foundation

(4) discovery

(5) assimilation

162. TURNED

(1) rotated

(2) twisted

(3) spinned

(4) revolved

(5) arrived

Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

163. DENSE

(1) crowed

(2) dark

(3) sparse

(4) transparent

(5) opaque

164. BARREN

(1) uncultivated

(2) fertile

(3) forest

(4) unlevelled

(5) marshy

165. VAST

(1) miniature

(2) magnified

(3) enormous

(4) gigantic

(5) small

Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)

167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)

168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)

169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.

(4) /No error (5)

170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)

171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)

172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)

173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)

175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.

(1) obvious

(2) uncertain

(3) definite

(4) regular

(5) essential

177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.

(1) demand

(2) abundance

(3) peak

(4) excessive

(5) dearth

178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.

(1) rude

(2) obedient

(3) docile

(4) intolerant

(5) immature

179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.

(1) buy

(2) work

(3) submit

(4) pay

(5) decide

180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.

(1) that

(2) who

(3) whom

(4) which

(5) those

Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and

(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. “All Correct” as the answer.

181. (1) Discloser

(2) Indifference

(3) Cooperative

(4) Irreversible

(5) All Correct

182. (1) Repetition

(2) Conservative

(3) Acceptability

(4) Innovative

(5) All Correct

183. (1) Vigilant

(2) Judilee

(3) Receptive

(4) Possessive

(5) All Correct

184. (1) Decisive

(2) Destructive

(3) Accommodation

(4) Pioneer

(5) All Correct

185. (1) Compromising

(2) Enthusiasm

(3) Dislocation

(4) Immigration

(5) All Correct

Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.

(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.

(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.

(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.

(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.

(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.

186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.

Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded “Padma Bhushan”, Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).

191. (1) famous

(2) magnificent

(3) decisive

(4) renewed

(5) glorious

192. (1) insecure

(2) absolute

(3) overt

(4) incompetent

(5) efficient

193. (1) creating

(2) developing

(3) encouraging

(4) holding

(5) appointing

194. (1) magnifying

(2) growing

(3) improving

(4) judging

(5) deciding

195. (1) prospered

(2) won

(3) acquired

(4) made

(5) donated

196. (1) analysed

(2) appreciated

(3) cooperated

(4) recommended

(5) curtailed

197. (1) given

(2) registered

(3) conferred

(4) passed

(5) dictated

198. (1) aspires

(2) enjoys

(3) dedicates

(4) believes

(5) continues

199. (1) reason

(2) aim

(3) perspective

(4) way

(5) essence

200. (1) fame

(2) respect

(3) reputation

(4) disregard

(5) limelight

ANSWERS

151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)

GENERAL ENGLISH

1. Choose the correctly spelt word

a) Techniquee (b) Technequ

(c) Technique (d) None of these

2. (a) Engredients (b) Ingradients

(c) Ingredients (d) None of these

Choose antonyms
3. Benign
a) Manifest (b) Meticous

c) Malignant (d) None of these

4. Concentrate
a) Focused (b) Locate

(c) Followed (d) None of these

Choose synonymous
5. Tackled
(a) Settled (b) Brought

(c) Handled (d) None of these
6. .Admonish
(a) Fight (b) Show
(c) Pacify (d) none of these

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

7. The 10th schedule in Indian constitution deals with
(a) Control of Panchayats over people
(b) Disqualification of members on grounds of defection
(c) Administrative control of municipalities
(d) Seats to each state and U.T. in the Rajya Sabha

8. Aircraft Industry is situated in
(a) Kanpur and Bangalore (b) Delhi and Noida
(c) Chennai and Kochi (d) Vishakhapatnam and Bhopal

9. Indian Military Academy is situated in
(a) Pune (b) Kirkee
(c) Dehradun (d) Meerut

10. Date of formation of SAARC is
(a) 8.12.1984 (b) 7.12.1985
(c) 8.12.1985 (d) None of these

11. Rheumatism is the disease of
(a) Bones (b) Joints
(C) Muscles (d) Teeth

GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

Choose the odd one out
12. (a) Lion (b) Bear
(c) Tiger (d) Horse
(e) Wolf

13. (a) Steam (b) Boil
(c) Chop (d) Bake
(e) Fry

14. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s

(a) Uncle (b) Brother

(b) Cousin (d) None of these

15. If P is taller than Q, R is shorter than P, S is taller than T but shorter than Q, then who among them is the tallest
(a) R (b) Q
(c) S (d) P

16. A woman is facing North-East, She turns 900 in the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is she facing now?

(a) North (b) South
(c) East (d) None of these

TEACHING APTITUDE

17 IQ test are less reliable because
(a) The do not evaluate persons fairly from different back ground
(b) They do not judge ability
(c) They measure performance at a particular time
(d) None of these

18. Teachers and Psychologist are mainly concerned with

(a) The habit formation (b) The process of learning

(c) The rectification of errors (d) Practical knowledge

19. Supervision is _______

(a) Regular (b) Therapeutic
(c) Democratic (d) All the above.

20 Boys scouts in the age-group of 7-11 years are called

(a) Cubs (b) Searchers

(b) Birds (d) Bulbul

NUMERICAL ABILITY

21. On what some of money the simple interest will raise to Rs.210 in 4 yearsat the rate of 7%

(a) Rs.750 (b) 650
(c) Rs.700 (d) 720

22. H.C.F OF
172 x 92 x 113 x 144 , 182 x 132 x92 x 11, 9 x 132 x 112 x 14
(a) 121 (b) 99
(c) 1331 (d) 1488

23. If “÷” is ‘-‘, ‘-‘ is x, ‘x’ is +, and ‘+’ is ÷ then
16 ÷ 4 – 4 x 2 + 2 =
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) 4

24 How many 2’s are there in following number series which are preceded by 7 but not followed by 4.
624897214372427672
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
25 In a group Ram stood 6 from top and 32 from the bottom. How many boys are there in the group.

(a) 38 (b) 39
(b) 34 (d) 37

Answers: 1-c, 2-c, 3-c, 4- d, 5-c, 6-d, 7-b, 8-a, 9-c, 10-c, 11-b, 12-d, 13-c, 14-b, 15-d, 16-d,17-a, 18-b, 19-d, 20-d, 21- a, 22-b, 23- a, 24-c, 25-d.

1 Which of is divisible by 7

(a) 987654 (b) 89543

(c) 795627 (d) 643129

2 93 x93 +93 x 92 + 92 x 92 / 93 93 x93 – 92 x92 x 92

(a) 147 (b) 1

(c) 2 (d) ½

3. x is divided by 3, remainder 2. What will be remainder if 2x is divided by 3?
a) 2 (b) 4

c) 8 (d) 1

4. Find the HCF of 42 x 54 x71 x193, 53 x 72 x113 x33 , 5 x73 x 132 x42 x 32
(a) 19881 (b) 35

(c) 105 (d) 288

5. Find out three digit greatest number which when divided by 3,6,9 leaves remainder 1 in each case 999

(a) 998 (b) 947

(c)991 (d) 981

6. In a fountain lights charges after every 12 seconds, 24 seconds, 48 seconds. If fountain lights change at 09.45.00 hours then at what time they will blink together

(a) 09.30.48 (b) 09.30.56

(c) 09.31.00 (d) 09.30.24

7 ..025 x .05 x .5 =?

(a) 625 (b) .00625

(c) .000625 (d) .0625

8 Express in fraction.11

(a) 1/9 (b) 11/9

(c) 10/9 (d) 21/20

9 2¼ – 2/3 of 3/8 -1

(a) 1 (b) -1

(c) 2 (d) 4

10. A businessman after a profit of 12% receives a sum of Rs.282828. What was his investment

(a) 262626 (b) 252525

(c) 242424 (d) 240000

11. If a/b = ¾ find 4a – b / 4a+b

(a) 1/4 (b) 2

(c) 1 (d) 1/2

12. √4 + √3 / √4 – √3 + √4 – √3 / √4 +√3

(a) 12 (b) 7

(c) 14 (d) 1

13. A daily paid has earned Rs.93 on 15 day of the month. He increased his average income of the month by Rs.2. Find his average income after 15th day of the month.

(a) 63 (b) 64

(c) 65 (d) 91

14. If “+” means “-“ and “X” means “÷” and “-“ means “+” and “÷” means X, then value of -4 ÷ 2 -3 + 4 X 2

(a) 8 (b) 9

(c) 12 (d) 2

15. In a test series Kapil score 90 suns more than Sachin and Sachin scores 20 runs more than Ajay. If total of Ajay and Sachin score is 350 then how much Kapil scored.

(a) 275 (b) 185

(c) 410 (d) 420

Answers: 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-b, 5-c, 6-a, 7-d, 8-a, 9-a, 10-b,11-d, 12-d, 13-c, 14-b, 15-a

Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.)

Indian History

1. The officer responsible for the safe custody of land records during the Gupta period was known as—

(A) Dhruvadhikarana

(B) Karanika

(C) Samaharta

(D) Shaulkika

Ans : (B)

2. The Prakrit text Gaudavaho describes the deeds of—

(A) Bhaskaravarman

(B) Isanavarman

(C) Sasanka

(D) Yasovarman

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty ?

(A) Kadambari

(B) Harshacharita

(C) Banskhera Inscription of Harsha

(D) Yuan-Chwang

Ans : (B)

4. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was—

(A) Srigupta

(B) Chandragupta I

(C) Samudragupta

(D) Ghatotkacha

Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following statements about Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien’s travel in India is not correct ?

(A) He came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II

(B) His object was to visit the holy places of Buddhism

(C) He came by the sea route

(D) He visited whole India and went back to his country by the land route

Ans : (C)

6. Which was the first work to recognise the payment of officers by grants of land ?

(A) Kautilya’s Arthasastra

(B) Indica of Megasthenese

(C) Manusmriti

(D) Harsacharita of Bana

Ans : (C)

7. Below are given the pairs of names of the Dharmashastra-writers and their patrons. Indicate the incorrect match—

(A) Ballalasena – Dharmapala

(B) Hemadri – Yadava Mahadeva

(C) Laxmidhara – Govindachandra Gahadawala

(D) Mitra Misra – Virasinha Bundela

Ans : (A)

8. Who among the following was celebrated with the title of ‘Gangai-Konda’ ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Mahendravarman I

(D) Kulottunga I

Ans : (B)

9. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden leaves from the Burmese king Kyanzittha ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(C) Kulottunga I

(D) Rajadhiraja I

Ans : (C)

10. Who among the following boldly stood for the sacrificial vedic tradition and opposed the theory of Sanyasa ?

(A) Kumarila

(B) Ramanuja

(C) Gaudapada

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (A)

11. In the case of a man dying without a son, whom Yajnavalkya places first in order of succession ?

(A) Wife

(B) Daughters

(C) Parents

(D) Brothers

Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : The Gahadawalas had friendly relations with the Cholas.

Reason (R) : A fragmentary Gahadawala inscription has been found incised below an inscription of Kulottunga I.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country ?

(A) Dutch

(B) British

(C) Portuguese

(D) French

Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following gives the administrative divisions of the chola kingdom in the correct descending order ?

(A) Mandalam, Valanadu, Kurram

(B) Mandalam, Nadu, Kottam

(C) Kurram, Nadu, Kottam

(D) Nadu, Kurram, Taniyur

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following was the primary village assembly in the chola village administration ?

(A) Nadu

(B) Sabha

(C) Ur

(D) Mahasabha

Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following states was a milch-cow for the British ?

(A) Hydrabad

(B) Punjab

(C) Mysore

(D) Avadh

Ans : (D)

17. Match the authors with their books—

(a) Subramanya Bharti

(b) Bhai Vir Singh

(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore

(d) Michael Madhusudan Dutt

1. Gitanjali

2. Meghnad Badh Kavya

3. Rana Surat Singh

4. Kuyil Pattu

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (C)

18. “The emergence of British power in India is from the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement ?

(A) Sir Stephen

(B) Ramsay Muir

(C) Dr. K. K. Datta

(D) Dr. R. C. Majumdar

Ans : (B)

19. In 1757 Siraj-ud-Daulah attacked British factory at—

(A) Dhaka

(B) Calcutta

(C) Kasimbazar

(D) Murshidabad

Ans : (B)

20. Which Governor of Madras presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu ?

(A) Eyercoote

(B) Stephenson

(C) Wellesely

(D) Lord Macartany

Ans : (D)

21. What was the bone of contention between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the English ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Karnataka

(C) The Sarkar of Guntur

(D) The Northern Sarkars

Ans : (C)

22. The statement “we have crippled our enemy without making our friends too formidable.” is associated with—

(A) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war

(B) Third Anglo-Mysore war

(C) Second Anglo-Mysore war

(D) First Anglo-Mysore war

Ans : (B)

23. Who among the following Mughal emperors, granted permission to trade free of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to the British ?

(A) Muhammad Shah

(B) Aurangzeb

(C) Bahadur Shah

(D) Farrukh Siyar

Ans : (D)

24. Where did the British East India Company open its first factory in India ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Surat

(C) Bharuch

(D) Mumbai

Ans : (B)

25. The Whitley commission was concerned with—

(A) Labour

(B) Education

(C) Public Health

(D) Reorganisation of civil services

Ans : (A)

26. Match the following treaties with the years of their conclusion—

(a) Treaty of Srirangapatnam

(b) Treaty of Sangoli

(c) Treaty of Manglore

(d) Treaty of Rajghat

1. 1792 2. 1806

3. 1816 4. 1784

Find the correct answer from code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (D)

27. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British Resident of Sindh ?

(A) Alexander Burnier

(B) James Outram

(C) Sir John Karne

(D) Sir Eyre Coote

Ans : (B)

28. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control ?

(A) 1773

(B) 1784

(C) 1793

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of control’ ?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Act of 1813

(D) Act of 1833

Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following historians has written about the nature of the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor national nor a war of independence.” ?

(A) T. R. Holmes

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) S. B. Chaudhuri

(D) G. B. Mallison

Ans : (B)

31. Which one of the following pairs

is not correctly matched ?

(A) Jhansi —Laxmi Bai

(B) Gwalior —Tatya Tope

(C) Kanpur —Nana Saheb

(D) Allahabad —Kunwar Singh

Ans : (D)

32. The official historian of the movement of 1857 was—

(A) S. N. Sen

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(C) Tarachand

(D) V. D. Savarkar

Ans : (A)

33. Match the following associations with their presidents—

(a) British Indian Association, 1851

(b) Deccan Association, 1852

(c) Bombay Association, 1852

(d) British Indian Madras Association, 1850

1. Raja Radhakant Dev

2. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

3. C. Y. Mudaliar

4. Jamshedji Jijabhai

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 4 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 1 2 4 3

Ans : (D)

34. Who had chaired the Indian Education commission in 1882 ?

(A) Macaulay

(B) Sadler

(C) W. W. Hunter

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay ?

(A) Baharamji Malabari

(B) Shiva Narrain Agnihotri

(C) R. G. Bhandarkar

(D) B. K. Jayakar

Ans : (A)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given below—

List-I

(a) Laxmi Bai

(b) Tatya Tope

(c) Nana Saheb

(d) Bahadur Shah

List-II

1. Deported to Rangoon

2. Fled to Nepal

3. Captured and executed

4. Killed in battle

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 2 4 3 1

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Brahmo Samaj – Swami Brahmanand

2. Dev Samaj – Swami Satyanand Agnihotri

3. Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand

4. Ram Krishna Mission – Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1 and 4

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following journals had conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition of the practice of Sati ?

(A) Sambad Kaumadi

(B) Bangadoot

(C) Samachar Darpan

(D) Samachar Chandrika

Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following places ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ a parallel government was formed during the Quit India Movement ?

(A) Satara

(B) Tamaluk

(C) Ballia

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the following was elected as president of Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(C) Sarojini Naidu

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Ans : (A)

41. The party which observed ‘Black day’ on 3 July, 1947 against partition of India was—

(A) Indian National Congress

(B) Forward Bloc

(C) Hindu Mahasabha

(D) Communist Party of India

Ans : (C)

42. Who was the author of ‘Pather Dabi’ a novel which glorified the path of violent revolution and which was banned by the British Government ?

(A) Premchand

(B) Sharatchandra Chatterji

(C) Bankimchandra Chatterji

(D) Ajai Ghosh

Ans : (B)

43. The newspaper ‘Man in India’ was edited by—

(A) Surjit Chadra Sinha

(B) Ashok Kumar Sarkar

(C) Ram Gopal Maheshwari

(D) Shiv Prasad Gupta

Ans : (A)

44. Who edited “Sahid Bhagat Singh : Dastavejo Ke Aine Mein” ?

(A) Irfan Habib

(B) Malavinder Jit Singh

(C) Chaman Lal

(D) Amalesh Tripathi

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following writers was not associated with ‘economic nationalism’ ?

(A) R. C. Dutt

(B) G. V. Joshi

(C) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) Annie Besant

Ans : (D)

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.

Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following was not a member of the Hunter committee set up to enquire into the Jallianwala bagh massacre ?

(A) Lord Hunter

(B) General Dyer

(C) W. F. Rice

(D) Sir Thomas Smith

Ans : (B)

48. Which one of the following was not a slave of Mohammad Ghori ?

(A) Ikhtiyaruddin Bhakhtiyar Khalji

(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz

(C) Qutbuddin Aibak

(D) Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Ans : (D)

49. Who among the following writers has described the seven fold division of the Hindu society ?

(A) Ibn Khordadbah

(B) Abu zaid-Alhasan

(C) Al-Beruni

(D) Utbi

Ans : (A)

50. The foreign invader who plundered somnath temple was—

(A) Mohammad Ghori

(B) Masud III

(C) Muhammad Bin-Qasim

(D) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Ans : (D)

51. The first hand account of conquest of India by Mohammad Ghori and the history of newly established Turkish kingdom is found in which of the following texts ?

(A) Faqra-i-Muddabir

(B) Qamil-ut-Tawarikha

(C) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri

(D) Kitab-ul-Yamini

Ans : (C)

52. Select from the following options, the Arab invader who defeated Dahira, the king of Sindh in 712 A.D.—

(A) Budail

(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(C) Sultan Mahmud

(D) Ubaidullah

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Diwan-i-Mushtakharaj – Alauddin Khalji

(B) Diwan-i-Amirkohi – Mohammad Tughlaq

(C) Diwan-i-Khairat – Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat – Balban

Ans : (D)

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Alauddin built the siri fort.

Reason (R) : He wished to safeguard Delhi from Mongol invasions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

55. The statement “India is not Arabia, it is not practically feasible to convert it into Darul Islam.” is associated with—

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq

Ans : (A)

56. With which sultan of Delhi do you associate the compilation of Kingship theory and principles of administration called ‘vassayya’ ?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans : (B)

57. Which of the following is correct ?

(A) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Khalifa

(B) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Ulema

(C) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Qazi

(D) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan

Ans : (D)

58. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusrau deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin Khalji ?

(A) Nuh Siphar

(B) Khajain-ul-Futuh

(C) Miftah-ul-Futuh

(D) Quairanus Sadain

Ans : (B)

59. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Bahlol’s theory was ‘Kingship is kinship’.

Reason (R) : Bahlol respected Afghan tribal sentiments.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

60. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva Raya ?

(A) Vaishnavism

(B) Shaivism

(C) Jainism

(D) Buddhism

Ans : (A)

61. In which capacity thousands of women were employed in the empire of Vijayanagar ?

(A) Accountants

(B) Royal bodyguards

(C) Palace guards

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

62. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—

1. Namdeva

2. Vallabhacharya

3. Ramananda

4. Kabir

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 3, 4, 1, 2

(D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Ans : (C)

63. Who was the founder of Pushti marg ?

(A) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

(B) Vallabhacharya

(C) Madhavacharya

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (B)

64. Who was the founder of Qalandariya sect ?

(A) Skeikh Badiuddin Shah

(B) Kutubuddin Kalandar

(C) Shah Abdullah

(D) Abdul Aziza Makki

Ans : (D)

65. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India the image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins ?

(A) The Vijayanagar Empire

(B) The Kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra

(C) The Kingdom of Kakathiyas of Warrangal

(D) The Kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri

Ans : (A)

66. Who built the city of Nagalapura ?

(A) Bukka I

(B) Devaraya I

(C) Krishnadeva Raya

(D) Virupaksha

Ans : (C)

67. In which language did Babur wrote his autobiography ?

(A) Farsee

(B) Arabi

(C) Turki

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Akbar was the greatest among the Mughal emperors and one among the

great rulers of India.

Reason (R) : He was an ambitious ruler.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Sufi order)

(a) Qadiriya order

(b) Firdausiya order

(c) Chistiya order

(d) Suhrawardia order

List-II (Sufi Saints)

1. Khwaja Nizamuddin

2. Shaikh Shahabuddin

3. Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Manairi

4. Shaikh Abdul Qadir Gilani

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 1 3 2 4

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

70. To whom did Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow the title of ‘Ain-i-Hind (Mirror of India) ?

(A) Shaikh Sirajuddin Usmani

(B) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi

(C) Khwaja Syed Muhammad Gesudaraj

(D) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria

Ans : (C)

71. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Mughal emperors from Humayun to Jahangir were obsessed with ‘Nur’ or light.

Reason (R) : They considered kingship as a light emanating from God to king.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is the true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Years)

(a) 1527 A.D.

(b) 1540 A.D.

(c) 1565 A.D.

(d) 1575 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Battle of Tukarai

2. Battle of Talikota

3. Battle of Kanwah

4. Battle of Kannauj

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 2 1

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans : (C)

73. When was the famous ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed during the reign of Jahangir ?

(A) 1605 A.D.

(B) 1610 A.D.

(C) 1615 A.D.

(D) 1620 A.D.

Ans : (C)

74. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan as the vazir ?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(C) Shahjahan

(D) Aurangzeb

Ans : (D)

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Year)

(a) 1627 A.D.

(b) 1659 A.D.

(c) 1666 A.D.

(d) 1674 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and assumed title of Maharaja Chhatrapati.

2. Escape of Shivaji from Agra.

3. Birth of Shivaji.

4. Afzal, Khan was killed by Shivaji.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 3 4 2 1

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about the Mughal paintings ?

(A) The Mughal school of painting represents one of the most significant phases of Indian art.

(B) Akbar patronized both Persian and Indian painters.

(C) The Mughal school of painting was always under foreign influence.

(D) Jahangir had also taken much interest to promote the Mughal painting.

Ans : (C)

77. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Emperor Name

(A) Babur : Zahiruddin Muhammad

(B) Humayun : Nasiruddin Muhammad

(C) Akbar : Jalaluddin Muhammad

(D) Jahangir : Muhiuddin Muhammad

Ans : (D)

78. What was ‘Paga’ in the Maratha administration ?

(A) Independent soldiers

(B) State dependant soldiers

(C) Professional soldiers

(D) Soldiers of other country

Ans : (B)

79. Which one of the following Harappan sites provides the evidence of the fire-alters ?

(A) Alamgirpur

(B) Banavali

(C) Kalibangan

(D) Kunal

Ans : (C)

80. Which of the following Harappan city sites had bipartite division – high citadel and lower town ?

1. Harappa

2. Mohenjodaro

3. Kalibangan

4. Surkotada

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji became sati ?

(A) Puttabai

(B) Sakawarbai

(C) Soyrabai

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

82. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about Shivaji ?

(A) He was simple and religious in his personal life

(B) He did not force any Muslim to embrace Hinduism

(C) He forced prisoners of war to become slave

(D) He organised Marathas against Mughal empire

Ans : (C)

83. Who among the following priests, led the confederacy of the ten kings against Sud-asa ?

(A) Visvamitra

(B) Vasishtha

(C) Bharadwaja

(D) Gritsamada

Ans : (A)

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I

(a) Rigveda

(b) Yajurveda

(c) S-amaveda

(d) Atharvaveda

List-II

1. Gopatha Brahamana

2. Satapatha Brahmana

3. Aitareya Brahmana

4. Tandya Brahmana

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 1 3 2 4

Ans : (B)

85. Which one of the following statements about the Indus Civilization is correct ?

(A) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization had no trade relations with countries outside India

(B) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization did not worship Gods and Goddesses

(C) The Indus Valley people know how to construct carts

(D) The Indus Valley people were not familiar with cotton

Ans : (C)

86. Which of the Vedic Gods is described as supervising the moral order ?

(A) Indra

(B) Varuna

(C) Rudra

(D) Vishnu

Ans : (B)

87. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy ?

(A) The doctrine of rebirth

(B) The doctrine of Syadvada

(C) The doctrine of immortality of soul

(D) The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna

Ans : (B)

88. Arrange in a chronological sequence the following varsavasas of Gautam Buddha during the first decade of his enlightenment—

1. Kausambi

2. Rajagriha

3. Risipattana

4. Vaisali

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4

(B) 3, 4, 2, 1

(C) 4, 3, 1, 2

(D) 3, 2, 4, 1

Ans : (D)

89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I (Jain Tirthankara)

(a) Ajit Nath

(b) Vimal Nath

(c) Shanti Nath

(d) Parshava Nath

List-II (Birth Place)

1. Kashi

2. hastinapur

3. Kampilya

4. Ayodhya

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (D)

90. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been mentioned in the early Buddhist Literature as—

(A) Nigantha Nataputta

(B) Vardhamana

(C) Vesaliya

(D) Videhaputta

Ans : (A)

91. Which of the following inscriptions proves Chandragupta Maurya’s conquest of Saurashtra ?

(A) Ashoka’s rock edict of Shahbajgarhi

(B) Ashoka’s rock edict of Mansehra

(C) Seventh pillar edict of Ashoka

(D) Junagarh rock edict of Rudradamana

Ans : (D)

Ans : (D)

92. The Syrian ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara was—

(A) Dionysus

(B) Daimachus

(C) Hegesander

(D) Athenaus

Ans : (B)

93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I (Ashoka’s contemporary rulers)

(a) Antiyoka

(b) Antikini

(c) Maka

(d) Turamaya

List-II (Countries where they ruled)

1. Cyrene

2. Egypt

3. Macedonia

4. Syria

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(C) 3 2 4 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

94. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism ?

(A) Jatakas

(B) Acharangasutra

(C) Dighnikaya

(D) Sumangalavilasini

Ans : (B)

95. Who among the following has been considered a Lady Tirthankara in the Svetambara

tradition ?

(A) Sumatinatha

(B) Santinatha

(C) Mallinatha

(D) Kunthunatha

Ans : (C)

96. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended upto Champa in the east ?

(A) Sarnath Inscription

(B) Saheth-Maheth inscription

(C) Rabataka inscription

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

97. Who captured the famous ‘silk route’ of central Asia ?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Kanishka

(C) Menander

(D) Harsha

Ans : (B)

98. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : Bacchanalian scenes are also found in Mathura art.

Reason (R) : The Mathura artists were aware of the Gandhara art tradition.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (D)

99. What was the function of the officer known as ‘Gopa’ during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya ?

(A) He was incharge of a Janapada

(B) He was incharge of a group of villages

(C) He was incharge of a Dronamukha

(D) He was the president of a municipal board

Ans : (B)

100. Which of the following Mauryan pillars were surmounted by lion capital ?

1. Koluha Pillar

2. Lauriya Nandangarh Pillar

3. Sanchi Pillar

4. Sarnath Pillar

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 2 and 3

Ans : (A)

1. The Chief Justice of Pakistan’s Supreme Court suspended last year by President Musharraf was—
(A) Shaukat Aziz
(B) Anees Fahim
(C) Ifthikar Chaudhury
(D) Farooq Leghari
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organizations has set the target of reducing Greenhouse gas emissions by 50% by the year 2050 ?
(A) United Nations
(B) UNDP
(C) G-8
(D) SAARC
Ans : (C)

3. The Sunfeast Open Tournament (2007) was won by—
(A) Vania King
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Mariya Korytheseva
(D) Maria Kirilenke
Ans : (D)

4. Who was the Men’s national senior Billiards champion in 2007 ?
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Ashok Shandilya
(C) Abhijeet Gupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Ustad Amzad Ali Khan is an exponent of—
(A) Santoor
(B) Sarod
(C) Violin
(D) Tabla
Ans : (B)

6. Which book is written by Satyendra Nath Dutta ?
(A) Agnibina
(B) Kuhu-O-Keka
(C) Sagar-Theke-Fera
(D) Trijama
Ans : (B)

7. Which State is regarded as the land of five rivers ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Assam
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

8. The largest rice producing State in India is—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

9. China’s national game is—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Polo
(D) Table Tennis
Ans : (D)

10. The oldest oilfield in India is—
(A)Moran
(B) Makum
(C) Digboi
(D) Dibrugarh
Ans : (C)

11. Density of population is highest in which State of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

12. Given that the absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. What is the refractive index of glass with reference to water ?
(A) 2/3
(B) 8/9
(C) 9/8
(D) ¾
Ans : (C)

13. In the alkane series methane is followed by—
(A) Propane
(B) Butane
(C) Benzene
(D) Ethane
Ans : (D)

14. The Secretary-General of the Commonwealth is—
(A) Don McKinnon
(B) Kamalesh Sharma
(C) Avinash Chander
(D) Vijay Kelkar
Ans : (B)

15. The term ‘Penhold Grip’ is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Rowing
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)

16. A force of 5 N acts on a body for 0•2 secs. The change in momentum of the body is—
(A) 1 kg ms-1
(B) 0•1 kg ms-1
(C) 10 kg ms-1
(D) The given data is insufficient
Ans : (D)

17. Organic compound used for welding and artificially ripening of fruits is—
(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C)C2H2
(D) C2H4
Ans : (D)

18. In rabbit, the digestion of cellulose takes place in—
(A) Rectum
(B) Ileum
(C) Colon
(D) Caecum
Ans : (C)

19. Rolland Garros is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Tennis
(D) Rowing
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following elements is essential for animals but not in plants ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Calcium
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

21. Keenan stadium is located at—
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Cuttack
(C) Patna
(D) Ranchi
Ans : (A)

22. The circulation of blood in closed circulatory system was discovered by—
(A) Francis Darwin
(B) William Harvey
(C) G. Mendel
(D) Hippocrates
Ans : (B)

23. Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting because it plays a vital role in the synthesis of—
(A) Thromboplastin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

24. Iris is the anterior part of—
(A) Retina
(B) Choroid
(C) Sclera
(D) Cornea
Ans : (A)

25. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located ?
(A) Tip
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (A)

26. The following is not a member of the European Union :
(A) Turkey
(B) Cyprus
(C) Slovakia
(D) Ireland
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following States has the largest size of population ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

28. Which city is called Gateway of India ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

29. Who is the famous South Indian musician and saint, who was an exponent of Carnatic music ?
(A) Tyagaraja
(B) B. Subramanium
(C) R. Ramachandran
(D) P. Venkataraman
Ans : (A)

30. ‘Geeta-Govindam’ by Kavi Jaydev was written in—
(A) Bengali
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Maithili
(D) Apabhramsa
Ans : (B)

31. When was ‘Purna Swaraj’ day first celebrated ?
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) August 15, 1930
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) January 26, 1930
Ans : (D)

32. The native land of ‘Jim Corbett’ is—
(A) England
(B) India
(C) Germany
(D) France
Ans : (B)

33. Dr. M. S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharat Natyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

34. We find ‘Indir-Thakrun’ in—
(A) Aranyak
(B) Pather-Panchali
(C) Ichamati
(D) Devajan
Ans : (B)

35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides to the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?
(A) 360
(B) 368
(C) 390
(D) 348
Ans : (B)

36. ‘Hans Christian Andersen’ was born in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Denmark
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

37. Anhydrous CaO may be used to dry—
(A) H2S gas
(B) NH3 gas
(C) CO2 gas
(D) HCl gas
Ans : (B)

38. In bacteria, which of the following photosynthesis is present ?
(A) PS I
(B) PS II
(C) Both PS I and PS II
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

39. The only Sultan of Delhi who exempted his subject from nearly 24 taxes was—
(A) Mubarak Shah Khalji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (C)

40. To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

41. The fuel in a nuclear reactor is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Heavy water
(C) Cadmium
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following occupies 22•4 litres at N.T.P. ?
(A) 17 gms NH3
(B) 22 gms CO2
(C) 1•7 gms NH3
(D) 4•4 gms CO2
Ans : (A)

43. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising the—
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha only
(B) Members of the Rajya Sabha only
(C) Elected Members of both Houses of Parliament and Members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States
(D) Members of both Houses
Ans : (C)

44. One of the famous tragedies of Shakespeare is—
(A) The Merchant of Venice
(B) Macbeth
(C) The Tempest
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)

45. Water equivalent of a body is measured in—
(A) Degrees centrigrade
(B) Calories
(C) Grams
(D) Dynes
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the following countries has recently signed the Kyoto Protocol ?
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

47. The proposed site for private port in West Bengal is—
(A) Falta
(B) Kakdwip
(C) Kulpi
(D) Sagar Island
Ans : (C)

48. The most populous city of India in 2001 is—
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (D)

49. Editor of the Magazine ‘Sambad-Pravakar’ was—
(A) Debendra Nath Thakur
(B) Akshoy Kumar Dutta
(C) Pearychand Mitra
(D) Iswar Chandra Gupta
Ans : (D)

50. When the temperature of a metalrises, its electrical resistance—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not change
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

1. Programs that automatically submit your search request to several search engines simultaneously are called—
(1) Metasearch engines
(2) Webcrawlers
(3) Spiders
(4) Hits
(5) None of these

2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include—
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the—
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large

4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system’s hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory

5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG

6. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these

7. The term, “hypertext”, means—
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google’s cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
(5) None of these

9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock

10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these

11. Carbon credit is meant for—
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming

12. Acetic acid is present in—
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter

13. Deep litter and cage systems are associated with—
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing

14. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to—
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above

15. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace—
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under—
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill

17. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is—
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of—
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers

19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at—
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu

20. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages—
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
(5) Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Vikram Seth
(3) Arundhati Roy
(4) Ruskin Bond
(5) Dhruv Sawhney

22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(1) Vijay Shankar
(2) T.N. Seshan
(3) Wajahat Habibullah
(4) Mathew Varghese
(5) M.H. Baig

23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed?
(1) December 9
(2) December 1
(3) November 30
(4) October 24
(5) December 30

24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film?
(1) Hanuman
(2) Ramayana
(3) Harry Potter
(4) Mughal-e-Azam
(5) Ram Sita

25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir?
(1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
(2) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(3) Omar Abdullah
(4) M.H. Baig
(5) T. N. Seshan

ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)

IAS General Studies – (Prelims) (Paper – II)

61. Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman andNicobar Islands?
Andhra Pradesh
Calcutta
Madras
Orissa
Correct Answer is (b) Calcutta

62. Under which Article of the Indian constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on theConstitutional validity of the ElectionCommission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly election in the year 2002)?
Article 142
Article 143
Article 144
Article 145
Correct Answer is (b) Article 143

63. Consider the following statements :
1. India launched its first full-fledged meteorological satellite METSAT) in September, 2002.
2. For the first time, the space vehicle PSLV-C4 carried a payload of more than 1000 kg into a geosynchronous orbit.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

64. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of
Assam Himalayas
Kumaon Himalayas
Nepal Himalayas
Punjab Himalayas
Correct Answer is (b) Kumaon Himalayas

65. Consider the following statements :
1. India is the original home of the cotton plant.
2. India is the first country in the world to develop hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

66. Who is the author of the book ‘New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy’?
A. B. Vajpayee
JaswantSingh
P.C. Alexander
Yashwant Sinha
Correct Answer is (a) A. B. Vajpayee

67. How did the Mughal Emperor Jahandarshah’s reign come to an early end?
He was deposed by his Wazir
He died due to a slip while climbing down steps
He was defeated by his nephew in a battle
He died of sickness due to too much consumption of wine
Correct Answer is (c) He was defeated by his nephew in a battle

68. In India, among the following locations, the Dutch.established their earlier factory at
Surat
Pulicat
Cochin
Cassimbazar
Correct Answer is (b) Pulicat

69. Consider the following statements:
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts andPublic Undertakings, members of Committeeon Estimates are drawn entirely from LokSabha.
The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nomi-nates members of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Board and Commission etc. set up by the Government of India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements are correct?
l and 2
2 and 3
l and 3
1,2, and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3

70. The Genetic Engineering Approval committee,whose permission is required for cultivationof any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the Union Ministry of
Agriculture
Environment and Forests
Commerce and Industry
Rural Development
Correct Answer is (b) Environment and Forests

71. As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
Deputy Prime Minister
Former President
Governor of a State within his State
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Correct Answer is (c) Governor of a State within his State

72. Among the following cities, which one is atthe highest altitude above mean sea level?
Bangalore
Delhi
Jodhpur
Nagpur
Correct Answer is (a) Bangalore

73. Consider the following statements:
1. Steam at 100° C and boiling water at 100° C contain same amount of heat.
1 and 2
2 and 3
Only 2
Only 3
Correct Answer is (d) Only 3

74. Consider the following statements:
Molasses is a by-product of sugar production process.
2. Bagasse obtained in the sugar mills is used asa fuel in the boilers to generate steam for the sugar factories.
3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcaneas the raw material.
Which of these statements are correct?
1 and 2
2 and 3
l and 3
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer is (a) 1 and 2

75. Consider the following statements:
1. Longitude of Jabalpur’s location is betweenthose of Indore and Bhopal.
1 and 3
Only 2
2 and 3
1,2 and 3
Correct Answer is (c) 2 and 3

76. Which one among the following States is smallest in area?
Andhra Pradesh
Gujarat
Karnataka
Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer is (d) Tamil Nadu

77. Consider the following statements:
A 4 – wheel vehicle moving in a sharp circularpath at high speed will
1 and 3
2 and 4
2 and 3
1 and 4
Correct Answer is (c) 2 and 3

78. The Basque people who are frequently in thenews for their separatist activity live in
France
Italy
Portugal
Spain
Correct Answer is (d) Spain

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List- I High Officials) List-II Organisation)
A. C.P. Jain 1. Indian Airlines
B. S. Ramadoria 2. NTPC
C. Sunil Arora 3. TCS
D. Vivek Paul 4. Wipro Technologies

A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2
A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4
Correct Answer is (c) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

80. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors
Calcium cabonate is an ingredient of toothpaste
Bordeaux mixture consists of Sodium Sulphate and lime
Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling
Correct Answer is (a) Liquid Sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors

81. Consider the following statements :
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

82. Diffusion of light in the atmosphere takes placedue to
Carbon dioxide
Dust Particles
Helium
Water vapours
Correct Answer is (b) Dust Particles

83. In India, the first bank of limited liability managed by Indians and founded in 1881 was
Hindustan Commercial Bank
Oudh Commercial Bank
Punjab National Bank
Punjab and Sind Bank
Correct Answer is (b) Oudh Commercial Bank

84. Which one of the following statements is NOTcorrect?
The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasijudicial body established under an Act of Parliament
The press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media person so as to have easy access to information from government sources
Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers
Press Trust of India is the largest newsagency in the county
Correct Answer is (c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of newspapers

85. The Government holding in BPCL is
More than 70%
Between 60% and 70%
Between 50% and 60%
less than 50%
Correct Answer is (a) More than 70

86. Consider the. following statements regardingthe relations between India and Pakistan
1. During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi andZulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC.
2. Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.
3. Islamabad Summit was held’between RajivGandhi and Nazan Sharif.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
1,2and3
l and 3
Only 2
Only 1
Correct Answer is (d) Only 1

87. During the year 2000-01, which one of the following industries recorded highest growth ratein India?
Cement
Coal
Electricity
Steel
Correct Answer is (c) Electricity

88. An oil tanker is partially, filled with oil and moves forward on a level road with uniform acceleration. The free surface of oil then
Remains horizontal) is inclined to the horizontal with smaller depth at the rear end is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end Assumes parabolic curve.
Correct Answer is (c) is inclined to the horizontal with larger depth at the rear end

89. In December 2002, the Prime, Minister of India signed ‘Delhi Declaration’ with the
President of Indonesia
President of Russia
Prime Minister of Cambodia
Prime Minister or Laos
Correct Answer is (b) President of Russia

90. Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the tropic of Cancer?
Delhi
Kolkata
Jodhpur
Nagpur
Correct Answer is (b) Kolkata

91. ‘Mrichchhakatika’ an ancient Indian bookwritten by Shudraka deals with
the love affair of rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan
the victory of Chandragupta II over the Shaka Kshtrapas of western India
the military expeditions and exploits of Samudragupta
the love affair between a Gupta King and a princess of Kamarupa
Correct Answer is (a) the love affair of rich merchant with the daughter of a courtesan

92. Consider the following statements:
1. Vardhaman Mahavira’s mother was the daughter of Lichchhavi chief Chetaka.
Gautama Buddha’s mother was a princess from the Koshalan dynasty.
3. Parshvanatha, the twenty-third Tirthankara, belonged to Banaras.
Which of these statements is / are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
2 and 3
1,2, and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3

93. A car travels the first one-third of a certain dis-.tance with a speed of 10 km/hr, the next one-third distance with a speed of 20 km/hr and the last one-third distance with a speed of 60 km/ hr. The average speed of the car for the whole journey is
18 km/hr
24 km/hr
30 km/hr
36 km/hr
Correct Answer is (a) 18 km/hr

94. Consider the following statements:
The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is
1. to keep the washing powder dry.
2. to maintain the availability of the powder.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (b) Only 2

95. Debenture holders of a company are its
Shareholders
Creditors
Debtors
Directors
Correct Answer is (c) Debtors

96. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali
The National calendar of India based on Saka era has its 1 st Chaitra on 22nd March normally and 21st March in a leap year
The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947
The song ‘Jana-gana-mana’, composed originally in Bengali by labindranath Tagore was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly on 24th January, 1950 as the National Anthem of India.
Correct Answer is (a) The National Song Vande Mataram was composed by Bankimchandra Chatterji originally in Bengali

97. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance’?
Article 215
Article 275
Article 325
Article 355
Correct Answer is (d) Article 355

98. ‘A’ walks around a circular field at the rate ofone round per hour while ‘B’ run ‘around it atthe rate of six rounds per hour. They start inthe same direction from the same point at 7.30a.m. They shall first cross each other at
8.30 a.m.
8.10a.m
7.48 a.m.
7.42 a.m
Correct Answer is (d) 7.42 a.m

99. Consider the following statements:
In India, stamp duties on financial transaction are
1. Levied and collected by the State Government.
2. Appropriated by the Union Government.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

100. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
East Timor was a British colony for four centuries
The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975
The United Nations took over East Timor in 1999 to prepare it for independence
East Timor finally declared its independence in December 2001
Correct Answer is (b) The European colonial rulers handed over East Timor to Indonesia in 1975

101. Match List I with List II and select the correctanswer:

List-I Item in the Indian Constitution) List-IICountry from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Rights 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union 4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America

A-5 B-4 C-1 D-2
A-3 B-5 C-2 D-1
A-5 B-4 C-2 D-1
A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2
Correct Answer is (d) A-3 B-5 C-1 D-2

102. With reference to Indian defence, which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command
Sukhoi-30 MKI jet fighters can launch air-to-air and air-to-surface precision missiles
Trishul is a supersonic surface-to-air missile with a range of 30 km
The indigenously build INS Prabal can launch surface-to-surface missiles
Correct Answer is (a) With the induction of Prithvi-II, the IAF is the only air force in the world with surface-to-surface ballistic missiles under its command

103. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2002 was awarded to
John Hume
Nelson Mandela
Norodom Sihanouk
SadakoOgata
Correct Answer is (c) Norodom Sihanouk

104. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
List-IName of the Person) List-II Associated with)
A. Brijmohan Lall Munjal 1. Biotechnology
B. Kiran Karniak 2. AutomobileIndustry
C. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw 3. Software industry
D. Sunil Mittal
A-4 B-1 C-5 D-2
A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2
A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
A-2 B-1 C-5 D-4

Correct Answer is (c) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

105. Whom did Mahesh Bhupati and Max Mirnyi beat in the US Open men’s doubles tennis Championship in the year 2003 to win the title?
Wayne Black and Kevin Ullyet
Mike Bryan and Bob Bryan
Jonas Bjorkman and Todd Woodbridge
Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek
Correct Answer is (d) Jiri Novak and Radek Stepanek

106. Four different candles, which can last for 5 hours, 4 hours, 3 hours and 2 hours of burning, respectively, are lit in a room at the same instant and allowed to burn till such time that thethree candies in the room get extinguished. Thecost of burning each one of these candles is 75paise per hour. The cost involved is:
Rs. 2.75
Rs. 3.75
Rs.9.75
Rs. 12.50
Correct Answer is (c) Rs.9.75

107. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to FEMA in India?
The Foreign Exchange Regulating Act FERA) was replaced by Foreign Exchange Management Act FEMA) in the year 2001
FERA was given a sunset clause of one year till 31 st May, 2002 to enable Enforcement Directorate to complete the investigation of pending issues
Under FEMA, violation of foreign ex- change rules has ceased to be a criminal offence
As per the new dispensation, Enforcement Directorate can arrest and prosecute the people for the violation of foreign exchange rules
Correct Answer is (c) Under FEMA, violation of foreign ex- change rules has ceased to be a criminal offence

108. Consider the following Statements:
1. India’s import of crude and petroleum products during the year 2001-02, accounted for about 25% of India’s total imports.
2. During the year 2001-02, India’s exports hadincreased by 10% as compared to the previous year.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (a) Only 1

109. Who among the following was selected for the 2001 Dada Saheb Phalke Award ?
Dev Anand
Lata Mangeshkar
Ramanand Sagar
Yash Chopra
Correct Answer is (d) Yash Chopra

110. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
Milk contains non of the B-vitamins
Vitamin-A retinol) deficiency leads to dry and scaly skin
One of the symptoms of scurvy is pain in the joints
Vitamin B, thiamine) deficiency can leadto heart failure
Correct Answer is (a) Milk contains non of the B-vitamins

111. As per the Human Development Index given by UNDP, which one of the following sequences of South Asian Countries is correct, in the order of higher to lower development?
India -Sri Lanka -Pakistan- Maldives
Maldives – Sri Lanka – India – Pakistan
Sri Lanka- Maldives – India – Pakistan
Maldives – India – Pakistan – Sri Lanka
Correct Answer is (c) Sri Lanka- Maldives – India – Pakistan

112. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
The velocity of sound in air increases with the increase of temperature
The velocity of sound in air is independent of pressure
The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases
The velocity of sound in air is not affected by the change in amplitude and frequency
Correct Answer is (c) The velocity of sound in air decreases as the humidity increases

113. Consider the following statements:
1. India ranks first in the world in fruit production.
2. India ranks second in the world in the export of tobacco.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (b) Only 2

114. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines
The Airports Authority of India manages seven of the country’s international airports
The Airports Authority of India is the regulatory organisation for enforcing civil air regulations in India
It is the function of Directorate General of Civil Aviation to plan and construct runways and terminal buildings and to provide air safety services
Correct Answer is (a) Alliance Air is a wholly-owned subsidiary of Indian Airlines

115. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority?
Ordinary Bill
Money Bill
Finance Bill
Constitution Amendent Bill
Correct Answer is (d) Constitution Amendent Bill

116. Consider the following animals of India:
1. Crocodile 2. Elephant Which of these is/are endangered species?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both 1 and 2

117. Which one among the following covers the, highest percentage of forest area in the world ?
Temperate Coniferous forests
Temperate Deciduous forests
Tropical Monsoon forests
Tropical Rain forests
Correct Answer is (a) Temperate Coniferous forests

118. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female members is to be constituted out of five males and three females.Amongst the females, Ms. A refused to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?
11
12
13
14
Correct Answer is (d) 14

119. Consider the following statements:
1.The last Mauryan ruler, Brihadratha was assassinated by his commander-in – chief,Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. The last Sunga King, Devabhuti was assassinated by his Brahmana minister Vasudeva Kanva who usurped the throne.
3.The last ruler of the Kanva dynasty was deposed by the Andhras.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
.
l and 2
Only 2
Only 3
1,2, and 3
Correct Answer is (d) 1,2, and 3

120. The aim of education as stated by the Wood’s dispatch of 1854 was
The creation of employment opportunities for native Indians
the spread of western culture in India
the promotion of literacy among the people 128. using English medium of language
the introduction of scientific research andrationalism in the traditional Indian education
Correct Answer is (c) the promotion of literacy among the people 128. using English medium of language

121. Who won the title in the finals of French Open men’s singles tennis championship in the year 2002?
Albert Costa
Juan Carlos Ferrero
Andra Agassi
Pete Sampras
Correct Answer is (a) Albert Costa

122. Consider the following statements :
The function s) of the Finance Commission is/are
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States
4. to supervise and report on whether the Unionand State governments are levying taxes inaccordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
Only 1
2 and 3
3 and 4
1,2 and 4
Correct Answer is (b) 2 and 3

123. Which one among the following States has thehighest female literacy rate as per the Census2001?
Chattisgarh
Madhya Pradesh
Orissa
Rajasthan
Correct Answer is (a) Chattisgarh

124. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency ?
Bhutan
Malaysia
Maldives
Seychelles
Correct Answer is (d) Seychelles

125. Which one of the following countries is landlocked?
Bolivia
Peru
Suriname
Uruguay
Correct Answer is (a) Bolivia

126. Which one of the following countries doesNOT border the Caspian Sea?
Armenia
Azerbaijan
Kazakhstan
Turkmenistan
Correct Answer is (a) Armenia

127. The sportsperson Soma Biswas in associatedwith
Sailing
Hockey
Golf
Athletics
Correct Answer is (d) Athletics

128. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
Hydrocarbons
Nitrogen Oxides
Ozone
Methane
Correct Answer is (c) Ozone

129. Consider the following statements:
1. Kitab-i-Nauras, a collection of songs in praiseof Hindu deities and Muslim saints, was written by Ibrahim Adil Shah II
2. Amir Khusrau was the originator in India ofthe early form of the musical style known asQawali.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both l and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (c) Both l and 2

130. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. All the three begin to toll at 8 a.m. At what time will they first toll together again?
8.45a.m.
10.30a.m.
11.00a.m
1.30p.m

Correct Answer is (c) 11.00a.m

131. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer:
Table border=1 border-style=solid cellpading=0 cellspacing=0 width=400px

List-I Distinguished Lady) List-II Organisations / Industry )
A. Amrita Patel National Dairy Development Board
B. Anu Aga 2. Park Hotels
C. Mallika Srinivasan 3. Pfizer Limited
D. Priya Paul 4. Thermax Limited
5. Tractors and Farm Equipment Limited

A-1 B-4 C-5 D-2
A-2 B-4 C-1 D-5
A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2
A-2 B-3 C-1 D-5
Correct Answer is (c) A-1 B-3 C-5 D-2

132. Consider the following statements:
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
State Population
Number of Elected MLA’s of the State x 100
2. the value of the vote of an elected Member ofParliament equals
Total value of the votes of all elected MLA’s
Total number of elected MP’s
3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these^statements is/are correct?
1 and 2
Only 2
1 and 3
Only 3
Correct Answer is (b) Only 2

133. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal
Maharaja Ranjit Singh set up modern foundries to manufacture cannons at Lahore
Sawai Jai Singh of Amber had Euclid’s ‘Elements of Geometry’ translated into Sanskrit
Sultan Tipu of Mysore gave money for the construction of the idol of Goddess Sarda in the Shringeri temple
Correct Answer is (a) Ali Mardan Khan introduced the system of revenue farming in Bengal

134. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
6-th and 22-nd
13-th and 38-th
7-th and 31-st
11-th and 42-nd
Correct Answer is (c) 7-th and 31-st

135. How did Sultan Qutb-ud-din Aibak die?
He was treacherously stabbed to death by one of his ambitious nobles
He was killed in a battle with Taj-u-dinYildiz, the ruler of Ghazni who enteredinto a contest with him over the capture ofPunjab
He sustained injuries while besieging the fortress of Kalinjar in Bundelkhand and succumbed to them later
He died after a fall from his horse while . playing Chaugn
Correct Answer is (d) He died after a fall from his horse while . playing Chaugn

136. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
Earth
Jupiter
Mars
Venus
Correct Answer is (b) Jupiter

137. Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
Bengali
French
Japanese
Portuguese
Correct Answer is (a) Bengali

138. Which one of the following provisions was NOT made in the Charter Act of 1833?
The trading activities of the East India Company were to be abolished
The designation of the supreme authority was to be changed as the Governor-General of India in Council
All law-making powers to be conferred on Governor-General in Council
An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the governor-General’s Council
Correct Answer is (d) An Indian was to be appointed as a Law Member in the governor-General’s Council

139. With reference to normal human beings, consider the following statements:
1. In response to the presence of HCI, secretin is produced from the duodenum.
2. Enterogastrone is produced in the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty acids.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Only 1
Only 2
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer is (b) Only 2

140. Survey of India is under the Ministry of
Defence
Environment arid Forests
Home Affairs
Science and Technology
Correct Answer is (d) Science and Technology

141. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give wornen the right to vote?
Iceland
India
New Zealand
U.S.A.
Correct Answer is (c) New Zealand

142. Total time taken by a person in going to a place by walking and returning on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He would have gained 2 hours by cycling both ways.. The time taken by him to walk both ways is
6 hours 45 minutes
7 hours 45 minutes
8 hours 15 minutes
8 hours 30 minutes
Correct Answer is (b) 7 hours 45 minutes

143. Sandeep Pandey, the winner of Raman Magsaysay Award, is mainly an activist in
prevention of child marriages
promotion of communal harmony
environmental protection
education and livelihood projects for Dalits
Correct Answer is (d) education and livelihood projects for Dalits

144. What was the main reason for a great civil strife in Argentina recently?
Ethnic conflict between the native red Indian tribes and others
Economic crisis due to huge public debt
The issue of using native languages as medium of instruction in schools
clashes between government troops and secessionist groups
Correct Answer is (b) Economic crisis due to huge public debt

145. With reference to colonial rule in India what was sought by the Ilbert Bill in 1883?
To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned
to impose severe restrictions on the freedom of the native press as it was perceived to be hostile to colonial rulers
to encourage the native Indians to appear for civil service examinations by conducting mem in India
To allow native Indians to possess arms by amending the Arms Act
Correct Answer is (a) To bring Indians and Europeans on par as far as the criminal jurisdiction of courts was concerned

146. An important aspect of the Cripps Mission of1942 was
That all Indian States should join the Indian Union as a condition to consider any , degree of autonomy for India
the creation of an Indian Union with Do minion status very soon after the Second World War
the active participation and cooperation ot the Indian people, communities and political parties in the British,war effort as a condition for granting independence with full sovereign status to India after war
the framing of a constitution for the entire. Indian Union, with no separate constitution for any province, and a Union .Constitution to be accepted by all provinces
Correct Answer is (b) the creation of an Indian Union with Do minion status very soon after the Second World War

147. When Congress leaders ondemned the Montagu Chelmsford Report, many moderates left the party to form the
Swarajaya Party
Indian Freedom Patty
Independence Federation of India
Indian Liberal Federation
Correct Answer is (d) Indian Liberal Federation

148. In the FIFA World Cup Football event in theyear 2002, the number of goals scored by Ronaldo of Brazil was
6
7
8
9
Correct Answer is (c) 8

149. Which one of the following schedules of theIndian Constitution list the names of states and specifies their territories?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
Correct Answer is (a) First

Samiksha Adhikari Solved Paper

General Studies

1. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—

(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Reserve Bank of India

(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)

2. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?

(A) Agra

(B) Mirzapur

(C) Moradabad

(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?

(A) Bank of Baroda

(B) Punjab National Bank

(C) State Bank of India

(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—

(A) all children in the age group 3–10

(B) all children in the age group 4–8

(C) all children in the age group 5–15

(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)

5. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—

(A) employment to rural women folk

(B) employment to urban women folk

(C) employment to disabled persons

(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

6. Mixed economy means—

(A) existence of both small and big industries

(B) existence of both private and public sectors

(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors

(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)

7. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

8. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?

(A) Japan

(B) Denmark

(C) U.S.A.

(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Place)

(a) Vishakhapatnam

(b) Muri

(c) Gurgaon

(d) Panki

List-II (Industry)

1. Automobile

2. Ship-building

3. Fertiliser

4. Aluminium

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)

10. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) HDFC Bank

(C) Indian Overseas Bank

(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Mineral Production)

(a) Mineral Oil

(b) Gypsum

(c) Gold

(d) Bauxite

List-II (State)

1. Orissa

2. Karnataka

3. Gujarat

4. Rajasthan

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)

12. Consider the following statements—

Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.

Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Kerala

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?

(A) Dharwar system

(B) Gondwana system

(C) Cudappa system

(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)

15. Laterite soil is found in—

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia

(B) Masai — West Africa

(C) Red Indians — North America

(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)

17. Chilka lake is situated in—

(A) West Bengal

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Orissa

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)

18. Damodar is a tributary of river—

(A) Ganga

(B) Hugli

(C) Padma

(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)

19. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—

(A) provision for clean drinking water

(B) provision for cleaning rivers

(C) promoting communal harmony

(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)

20. National Dairy Development Board is located in—

(A) Anand

(B) Gandhinagar

(C) Vadodara

(D) Valsad

Ans : (A)

21. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Special List

Ans : (C)

22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kimberley —Diamond

(B) Havana —Meat packing

(C) Milan —Silk

(D) Sheffield —Cutlery

Ans : (C)

23. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—

(A) Lalitpur

(B) Pilibhit

(C) Lakhimpur Khiri

(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)

24. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—

(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala

(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar

(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)

25. The major coffee producing state in India is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Karnataka

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

26. March 24 (2008) was observed as—

(A) World AIDS Day

(B) World Disabled Day

(C) World Environment Day

(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day

Ans : (D)

27. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is notcorrectly matched ?

(A) Alamgirpur —Uttar Pradesh

(B) Banawali —Haryana

(C) Diamabad —Maharashtra

(D) Rakhigarhi —Rajasthan

Ans : (D)

28. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Chanda Pradyota

(C) Prasenajeta

(D) Udayana

Ans : (A)

29. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?

1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur

2. Assam

3. Nagaland

4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

30. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—

(A) Dinara Safina

(B) Ana Ivanovic

(C) Jelena Jankovic

(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova

Ans : (B)

31. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Brahmagupta

(C) Varahamihira

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

32. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?

(A) 57 years

(B) 78 years

(C) 135 years

(D) 320 years

Ans : (C)

33. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?

1. Mahapadma Nanda

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Rudradaman

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (D)

34. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—

(A) Cyrene

(B) Egypt

(C) Macedonia

(D) Syria

Ans : (B)

35. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?

(A) Maurya

(B) Sunga

(C) Satavahana

(D) Kushana

Ans : (A)

36. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?

(A) Konkani

(B) Malayalam

(C) Tamil

(D) Telugu

Ans : (D)

37. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—

(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi

(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

38. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Balban

(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Iltutmish

Ans : (C)

39. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?

(A) Saivites

(B) Saktas

(C) Vaishnavites

(D) Sun worshippers

Ans : (A)

40. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?

(A) Dasratha

(B) Brihadratha

(C) Kharavela

(D) Huvishka

Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?

(A) Farrukhsiyar

(B) Shah Alam-I

(C) Shah Alam-II

(D) Shujaud Daula

Ans : (C)

42. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—

(A) Lord Minto

(B) Lord Hardinge

(C) Lord Chelmsford

(D) Lord Reading

Ans : (B)

43. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—

(A) Afghanistan

(B) Burma

(C) Nepal

(D) Tibet

Ans : (A)

44. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?

(A) 16 : 1

(B) 32 : 1

(C) 40 : 1

(D) 64 : 1

Ans : (C)

45. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :

1. Abolition of Jazia

2. Construction of Ibadatkhana

3. Signing of Mahzar

4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans : (A)

46. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?

(A) Abbas Tyabji

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?

(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi

(B) Mukundi Lal

(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(D) Manmath Nath Gupta

Ans : (A)

48. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?

(A) Ras Behari Bose

(B) Batukeshwar Datt

(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh

(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans : (C)

49. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?

(A) Ramprasad Bismil

(B) Rajendra Lahiri

(C) Roshan Singh

(D) Ashfaqullah Khan

Ans : (A)

50. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?

(A) Dayaram Gidumal

(B) D. K. Karve

(C) Ramabai

(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Ans : (B)

51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) West Bengal

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Kerala

Ans : (C)

52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim

(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland

(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland

Ans : (C)

53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?

(A) Jamun

(B) Karonda

(C) Loquat

(D) Guava

Ans : (A)

54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Vitamin D

Ans : (C)

55. Bauxite is an ore of—

(A) Aluminium

(B) Boron

(C) Lead

(D) Silver

Ans : (A)

56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?

(A) Carbon dating

(B) Germanium dating

(C) Uranium dating

(D) All the above

Ans : (C)

57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?

(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(C) Nitrogen (N₂)

(D) Oxygen (O₂)

Ans : (A)

58. Electron-volt is the unit for—

(A) energy

(B) charge of electron

(C) potential difference

(D) power

Ans : (A)

59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—

(A) nuclear fission

(B) nuclear fusion

(C) nuclear spallation

(D) none of these

Ans : (A)

60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—

(A) Mars

(B) Venus

(C) Jupiter

(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)

61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—

(A) Copper

(B) Lead

(C) Cadmium

(D) Mercury

Ans : (B)

62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Malaria

(C) Cholera

(D) Hepatitis

Ans : (D)

63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—

(A) 50%

(B) 100%

(C) 125%

(D) 225%

Ans : (D)

64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—

(A) twins in which there is one male and one female

(B) twins in which both are females

(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam

(D) twins physically attached to each other

Ans : (D)

65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—

(A) full moon only

(B) new moon only

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) neither (A) nor (B)

Ans : (B)

66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?

(A) UNO—London

(B) WTO—Geneva

(C) ILO—New York

(D) FAO—Chicago

Ans : (B)

67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—

(A) N

(B) Zn

(C) Cu

(D) Mn

Ans : (B)

68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D) 80

Ans : (B)

69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—

(A) Sadbhavna Express

(B) Shanti Express

(C) Maitri Express

(D) Aman Express

Ans : (C)

70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—

(A) Anand Pawar

(B) Arvind Bhat

(C) Chetan Anand

(D) Zhendong Guo

Ans : (C)

71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Dehradun

(C) Shriharikota

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—

(A) Karnataka

(B) West Bengal

(C) Services

(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)

73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?

(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown

(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy

(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen

(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Ans : (B)

74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—

(A) Vienna

(B) London

(C) Paris

(D) Rome

Ans : (A)

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?

1. Madhuri Dixit

2. Ratan Tata

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Viswanathan Anand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (B)