a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above

2 Insurance is legitimate

a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations

3 Insurance benefits replace

a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent

4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong

5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?

a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right

6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by

a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three

7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because

a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above

8 The reason for charging level premiums is

a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons

9 What does a premium depend upon?

a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent

10 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

11 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?

a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above

14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

15 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong

16 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

17 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

18 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

19 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates

a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above

21 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

22 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

23 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

24 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

25 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

26 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

27 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

28 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?

a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen

30 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,

a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct

32 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

33 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

34 State which of the following statements is correct

a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

35 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

36 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

37 State which one of the following statements is correct

a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

38 Which of the following statements is correct?

a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work

39 State which one of the following statements is correct

a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

40 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

41 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

42 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195

44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these

45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500

Correct Answers Practice Paper 6

1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has
as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
onethat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
(E) 27

3. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each
letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is
LANE written in that code ?
(A) 5427
(B) 5247
(C) 5847
(D) 5237
(E) None of these

5. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related
to ……….
(A) JM
(B) IL
(C) JL
(D) IK

(E) None of these

6. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away
from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in
descending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED
written in that code ?
(A) PSHBMCDRH
(B) BHSPMCDRH
(C) BHSPOCDRH
(D) BHSPNHRDC
(E) None of these

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da na ja’ means ‘you
may come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in
that code language ?
(A) da
(B) ja

(C) na
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

9. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the
one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
(E) Steel
10. What should come next in the following number series ?
9 8 9 8 7 9 8 7 6 9 8 7 6 5 9 8 7 6 5 4 9 8 7 6 5

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) None of these
11. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following
five numbers ?

254 319 963 842 697
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 9

12. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday ?
(A) 10th
(B) 11th
(C) 10th or 11th
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

13. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many students are there between M and H ?
(A) 22
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

14. Among A, B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who among them scored least marks among them ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D F
(B) V X Z
(C) F I K
(D) M O Q
(E) L N P
Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answers :

(A) If only conclusion I follows.
(B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements :
Some desks are tents.
Some tents are rivers.
All rivers are ponds.
Conclusions :
I. Some ponds are tents.
II. Some ponds are desks.

17. Statements :
All chair are pens.
Some pens are knives.
All knives are rats.
Conclusions :
I. Some rats are chairs.
II. Some rats are pens.

18. Statements :
Some forests are huts.
Some huts are walls.
Some walls are nets.

Conclusions :
I. Some nets are forests.
II. Some nets are huts.

19. Statements :
All tables are windows.
All windows are rooms.
All rooms are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some buses are tables.
II. Some rooms are tables.

20. Statements :
Some trees are boxes.
All boxes are bricks.
All bricks are dogs.
Conclusions :
I. Some dogs are trees.
II. Some bricks are trees.

21. Statements :
All goats are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are goats.
II. No root is goat.

22. Statements :
All pots are rings.
All bangles are rings.
All rings are paints.
Conclusions :
I. Some paints are pots.
II. Some bangles are paints.
Directions—(Q. 23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the
questions given below—
B# AR 5 8 E%M F4 J 1 U@ H2 © 9 T I6 * W 3 P # K7 $ Y

23. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of
the above arrangement ?
(A) %
(B) W
(C) $
(D) J
(E) None of these

24. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number ?

(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

27. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the eleventh from the right end ?
(A) U
(B) T
(C) F
(D) H
(E) None of these

28. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either
immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

29. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 1 @ 4
(B) © T H
(C) W P 6
(D) # 7 3
(E) 9 2 I
Directions (Q. 30–36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols

followed by four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter combinations correctly represents the group of digits/ symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Digit/Symbol :
4 %3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d
Letter Code :
P M IT R QJ FHAE UNBG L
Conditions :

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the digit.
(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.
(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 4%@93*
(A) PMFTIB
(B) PMFTIP
(C) BMFTIB
(D) XMFTIX
(E) None of these

31. $1896©
(A) RQJTNH
(B) HQJTNR
(C) RQJTNR
(D) YQJTNY
(E) None of these

32. 2*#836
(A) YBEJIY
(B) ABEJIN
(C) NBEJIA
(D) XBEJIX
(E) None of these

33. 8732@9
(A) TGIAFJ
(B) YGIAFY
(C) JGIAFT
(D) XGIAFX
(E) None of these

34. 7#$%35
(A) GERMIU
(B) UERMIG
(C) GERMIG
(D) XERMIX
(E) None of these

35. 931%©d
(A) TIQMHL
(B) LIQMHT
(C) LIQMHL
(D) TIQMHT
(E) None of these

36. 46*389
(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX
(C) TNBIJP
(D) PNBIJP
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 37–43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are

used with the following meanings illustrated.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.
‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give
answers :
(A) If only conclusion I is true.
(B) If only conclusion II is true.
(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.
37. Statements : M @ J, J © R, R d K
Conclusions : I. K d J
II. K % J
38. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W
Conclusions : I. W % T
II. H © N
39. Statements : F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions : I. V % F
II. F @ T
40. Statements : W © D, D $ B, B @ H
Conclusions : I. H % D
II. W @ B
41. Statements : F d T, T $ M, M © R
Conclusions : I. R $ F
II. M © F
42. Statements : H $ N, N % R, R @ J
Conclusions : I. R @ H
II. J % H

43. Statements : V % B, B $ D, D © E
Conclusions : I. E d B
II. D @ V

Directions—(Q. 44–49) Study the following information and answer the questions given
below—
M, N, P, R, T, W, F and H are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is to the immediate right of P ?
(A) H
(B) F
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

45. Who is to the immediate right of H ?
(A) R
(B) F
(C) M
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

46. Who is to the immediate left of R?
(A) P
(B) H
(C) W
(D) T
(E) Data inadequate

47. Who is third to the right of H ?
(A) T
(B) W
(C) R
(D) F
(E) Data inadequate

48. Who is second to the right of F ?
(A) M
(B) R
(C) T
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
49. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the

third person ?
(A) NHM
(B) PHN
(C) TRP
(D) TWF
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 50–55) In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers aregiven. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from the left to the right.
Rules :
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be added.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number they are to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number the second one is to be subtracted from the first number.

50. 15 8 21
p 3 27
If ‘p’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 58
(B) 76
(C) 27
(D) 82
(E) None of these

51. 12 64 17
20 m 16
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 69
(B) 85
(C) 101
(D) 121
(E) None of these

52. 85 17 35
16 19 r
If ‘r’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 175
(B) – 5
(C) 75
(D) 210
(E) None of these

53. 24 15 3
d 6 15
If ‘d’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 37
(B) 8
(C) 22
(D) 29
(E) None of these

54. 28 49 15
h 3 12
If ‘h’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 19
(D) 27
(E) None of these

55. 36 15 3
12 3 n
If ‘n’ is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 15 / 17
(B) 32
(C) 12 / 17
(D) 36
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 56–60) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These
statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read
both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answers :
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

56. I. This year, the cut off percentage for admission to junior colleges have increased over the last year.
II. This year performance of students in Xth final exam was considerably higher than the previous year.
57. I. The conditions of most of the national highways are very bad.

II. Govt. has now sanctioned a huge amount of money to maintain the national highways

58. I. Many students of the local school have failed in English Language paper in the annual examination.
II. Many students of the local school have failed in Mathematics paper in the annual examination.
59. I. Rain and thunder showers bashed the city during the past three days.
II. Many people stayed indoor during the past three days.

60. I. There has been a considerable increase in the sale of fat free food articles.
II. Now people have become more conscious about their health condition and food habits.
Directions—(Q. 61-75) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Answers with Hints

1. (D)
2. (E) All the rest are prime numbers.
3. (B) B I T E
4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B)
9. (E) All the rest are pure metals.
10. (B) 98 987 9876 98765 987654 987654
11. (D) 963, 84 2, 697, 319, 254
12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (E)
20. (E) 21. (C) 22. (A)
23. (A) 20th from the left end is T and 12th to the left of T is %.
24. (C) H 2 © and K 7 $
25. (A)
26. (B) M F 4
27. (D) After dropping all the numbers.
B# AR E %M FJ U@H © T I* W P # K$ Y

11th from the right end is H.
28. (D) # A, E % and U @
29. (E) 30. (B) 31. (A) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (E)
35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (E) 39. (A)
40. (D) 41. (B)
42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (C)
49. (A) 50. (A) 51. (E) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (A)

56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (E) 59. (A) 60. (B)
61. (B) In each subsequent figure one time the three designs remain same and next time
after shifting one side anticlockwise direction then it remain same position. Inside shaded
part of the designs form after rotating 90° anticlockwise in the two designs and forms
after rotating 90° clockwise in a simple square design with this also.
62. (D) In each subsequent figure the outside bigger design ‘<’ forms after rotating 45°
and 90° anticlockwise respectively and the inside smaller design ‘^’ forms after rotating
90° and 180° anticlockwise respectively.
63. (E)
64. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on upper side straight horizontal line
increase in sequence of 2, 3, 1 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and one curved line is missing from back side each time. The curved lines on lower side straight horizontal line increase in sequence of 3, 4, 2 respectively from left to right and from upper side to lower side and is also missing 1 and 2 respectively from back side.
65. (C) In each subsequent figure the designs shift half side anticlockwise first and then one side anticlockwise respectively and a new design forms one by one from back side each time then forward side respectively.
66. (E) In each subsequent figure one design forms on upper left side corner first and then this design shifts half side, one side and, one and half side clockwise respectively. These
designs rotate 90° clockwise each time with this change also.
67. (B)
68. (A) In each subsequent figure the curved lines on the upper and lower side horizontal
lines reverse in sequence one and three in clockwise direction from upper left
respectively.
69. (B) In each subsequent figure the outside half circle forms inside after reversing and shifting one side anticlockwise and then it forms outside after reversing on the same side.
So these sequences continue respectively. The second design square forms once on next side anticlockwise after reversing from outside to inside.
70. (E) 71. (A)
72. (C) In each subsequent figure increase in the number of triangles from upper left
corner beome on the basis of increasing of lines three, four, five, six and seven lines respectively.
73. (B)
74. (E) In each subsequent figure the circles form on the place of two-two stars from upper left corner. These small circles form on the place of existing stars in the next two lines after forming upto lower left as 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 respectively and then two-two stars form on the place of circles from back side.
75. (D) In each subsequent figure the ‘square’ forms one side clockwise first and then half side anticlockwise respectively. Similarly, the ‘circle’ shifts half side, one side, one and half side, two side and two and half side anticlockwise respectively in each subsequent figure also.

1. What was the aim of Antyodaya Programme?
(A) Elimination of Urban Poverty
(B) Improving the standards of scheduled castes
(C) Uplifting minorities
(D) Helping the poorest among poor
Ans : (D)

2. As per the Economic Census 2005, which state of India possesses the maximum number of enterprises ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

3. Which is the ‘Great Division Year’ in the history of population growth in India ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1991
(C) 2001
(D) 1921
Ans : (D)

4. UNCTAD XII was held on April 20-25, 2008 at—
(A) Accra (Ghana)
(B) Jeneva (Switzerland)
(C) Midrand (South Africa)
(D) Bengkok (Thailand)
Ans : (A)

5. Under Lead Bank Scheme lead banks were asked to adopt—
(A) Village
(B) Town
(C) District
(D) State
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following is a group of Kharif crops ?
(A) Jwar, Bajra, Rice, Cotton, Jute, Gram
(B) Wheat, Barley, Gram, Sesame
(C) Rice, Millet, Maize, Cotton
(D) Groundnut, Bajra, Barley, Gram, Sesame
Ans : (C)

7. Durgapur Steel Plant was constructed with the assistance given by—
(A) Britain
(B) France
(C) USA
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

8. Which measure can check inflation ?
(A) Surplus Budgeting
(B) Increase in Direct taxation
(C) Curtailment in Public expenditure
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

9. In Human Development Report 2008 India has the HDI ranking—
(A) 107th
(B) 126th
(C) 127th
(D) 128th
Ans : (D)

10. Under new GATT agreements, textile trade related to Multi-Fibre Arrangement (MFA) has to be abolished within—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years
Ans : (B)

11. Which country is the largest wheat producing country of the world ?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) America
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (B)

12. India Millennium Deposits are being re-paid by—
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) LIC
(D) IDBI
Ans : (A)

13. Which state had the lowest literacy rate ?
(according to 2001 census)
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bihar
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

14. First Export Promotion Zone (EPZ) in private sector was established at—
(A) Kandla
(B) Vishakhapatanam
(C) Noida
(D) Surat
Ans : (D)

15. In India those farmers are called ‘Marginal Farmers’ who hold the land upto—
(A) 1 hectare
(B) 2 hectare
(C) 3 hectare
(D) 4 hectare
Ans : (A)

16. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to—
(A) Space research
(B) Poultry
(C) Fisheries
(D) Drinking water
Ans : (C)

17. Which one of the following measures is not adopted by RBI for controlling credit in India ?
(A) Cash Deposit Ratio
(B) Capital Adequacy Ratio
(C) Cash Reserve Ratio
(D) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Ans : (A)

18. The operational period of 13th Finance Commission recommendations will be—
(A) 2008–2013
(B) 2009–2012
(C) 2010–2015
(D) 2012–2017
Ans : (C)

19. India and Bangladesh has made an agreement to run train between the two countries between—
(A) Sialdah and Dhaka
(B) Sialdah and Jaidevpur
(C) Kolkata and Dhaka
(D) Kolkata and Jaidevpur
Ans : (B)

20. Which of the following questionnaire has been used by NSSO for estimating poverty estimates for 2004-05 ?
(A) Uniform Recall Period (URP)
(B) Mixed Recall Period (MRP)
(C) Both the above
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

(Correct Spelling)

2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)

9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included
fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)

11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)

13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)

15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)

17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in
organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :

18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)

20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)

21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in
meaning to the words in question :

22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)

23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)

24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)

25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)

26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling
point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online
admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the
long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges
and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)

29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)

30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical
colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may
decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or
government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address
his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)

33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)

36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in
the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)

37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara
School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)

43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted
at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)

44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between
them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given
set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)

Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the
following number series ?

47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)

48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will
you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama;
Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama
is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the
right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the
left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)

52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)

53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English
alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the
next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter
will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of
which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be
when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words
to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same
relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four
alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)

56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)

57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)

59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place
of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)

62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number
of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter
of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How
many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)

68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)

69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half
rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and
one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find
the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)

71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp
posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp
posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if
1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)

73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the
remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every
day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent
he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of
days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite
in meaning to the word ?

75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)

76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)

77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)

78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the
numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged
in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)

79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the
following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)

81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460.
What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)

82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59%
of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of
B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then,
what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)

84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of
the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)

85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)

86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)

87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)

88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)

90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)

91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the
following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following organizations has set the target of reducing Greenhouse gas emissions by 50% by the year 2050 ?
(A) United Nations
(B) UNDP
(C) G-8
(D) SAARC
Ans : (C)

3. The Sunfeast Open Tournament (2007) was won by—
(A) Vania King
(B) Sania Mirza
(C) Mariya Korytheseva
(D) Maria Kirilenke
Ans : (D)

4. Who was the Men’s national senior Billiards champion in 2007 ?
(A) Pankaj Advani
(B) Ashok Shandilya
(C) Abhijeet Gupta
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. Ustad Amzad Ali Khan is an exponent of—
(A) Santoor
(B) Sarod
(C) Violin
(D) Tabla
Ans : (B)

6. Which book is written by Satyendra Nath Dutta ?
(A) Agnibina
(B) Kuhu-O-Keka
(C) Sagar-Theke-Fera
(D) Trijama
Ans : (B)

7. Which State is regarded as the land of five rivers ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Assam
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Punjab
Ans : (D)

8. The largest rice producing State in India is—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

9. China’s national game is—
(A) Football
(B) Hockey
(C) Polo
(D) Table Tennis
Ans : (D)

10. The oldest oilfield in India is—
(A)Moran
(B) Makum
(C) Digboi
(D) Dibrugarh
Ans : (C)

11. Density of population is highest in which State of India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (A)

12. Given that the absolute refractive indices of water and glass are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. What is the refractive index of glass with reference to water ?
(A) 2/3
(B) 8/9
(C) 9/8
(D) ¾
Ans : (C)

13. In the alkane series methane is followed by—
(A) Propane
(B) Butane
(C) Benzene
(D) Ethane
Ans : (D)

14. The Secretary-General of the Commonwealth is—
(A) Don McKinnon
(B) Kamalesh Sharma
(C) Avinash Chander
(D) Vijay Kelkar
Ans : (B)

15. The term ‘Penhold Grip’ is associated with—
(A) Tennis
(B) Rowing
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Hockey
Ans : (C)

16. A force of 5 N acts on a body for 0•2 secs. The change in momentum of the body is—
(A) 1 kg ms-1
(B) 0•1 kg ms-1
(C) 10 kg ms-1
(D) The given data is insufficient
Ans : (D)

17. Organic compound used for welding and artificially ripening of fruits is—
(A) CH4
(B) C2H6
(C)C2H2
(D) C2H4
Ans : (D)

18. In rabbit, the digestion of cellulose takes place in—
(A) Rectum
(B) Ileum
(C) Colon
(D) Caecum
Ans : (C)

19. Rolland Garros is associated with—
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Tennis
(D) Rowing
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following elements is essential for animals but not in plants ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Calcium
(D) Iodine
Ans : (C)

21. Keenan stadium is located at—
(A) Jamshedpur
(B) Cuttack
(C) Patna
(D) Ranchi
Ans : (A)

22. The circulation of blood in closed circulatory system was discovered by—
(A) Francis Darwin
(B) William Harvey
(C) G. Mendel
(D) Hippocrates
Ans : (B)

23. Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting because it plays a vital role in the synthesis of—
(A) Thromboplastin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Prothrombin
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

24. Iris is the anterior part of—
(A) Retina
(B) Choroid
(C) Sclera
(D) Cornea
Ans : (A)

25. At which part of the tongue are the taste buds for sweet taste located ?
(A) Tip
(B) Back
(C) Sides
(D) Middle
Ans : (A)

26. The following is not a member of the European Union :
(A) Turkey
(B) Cyprus
(C) Slovakia
(D) Ireland
Ans : (A)

27. Which of the following States has the largest size of population ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

28. Which city is called Gateway of India ?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

29. Who is the famous South Indian musician and saint, who was an exponent of Carnatic music ?
(A) Tyagaraja
(B) B. Subramanium
(C) R. Ramachandran
(D) P. Venkataraman
Ans : (A)

30. ‘Geeta-Govindam’ by Kavi Jaydev was written in—
(A) Bengali
(B) Sanskrit
(C) Maithili
(D) Apabhramsa
Ans : (B)

31. When was ‘Purna Swaraj’ day first celebrated ?
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) August 15, 1930
(C) January 26, 1950
(D) January 26, 1930
Ans : (D)

32. The native land of ‘Jim Corbett’ is—
(A) England
(B) India
(C) Germany
(D) France
Ans : (B)

33. Dr. M. S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharat Natyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

34. We find ‘Indir-Thakrun’ in—
(A) Aranyak
(B) Pather-Panchali
(C) Ichamati
(D) Devajan
Ans : (B)

35. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides to the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?
(A) 360
(B) 368
(C) 390
(D) 348
Ans : (B)

36. ‘Hans Christian Andersen’ was born in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Denmark
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

37. Anhydrous CaO may be used to dry—
(A) H2S gas
(B) NH3 gas
(C) CO2 gas
(D) HCl gas
Ans : (B)

38. In bacteria, which of the following photosynthesis is present ?
(A) PS I
(B) PS II
(C) Both PS I and PS II
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

39. The only Sultan of Delhi who exempted his subject from nearly 24 taxes was—
(A) Mubarak Shah Khalji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (C)

40. To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible ?
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)

41. The fuel in a nuclear reactor is—
(A) Graphite
(B) Heavy water
(C) Cadmium
(D) Uranium
Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following occupies 22•4 litres at N.T.P. ?
(A) 17 gms NH3
(B) 22 gms CO2
(C) 1•7 gms NH3
(D) 4•4 gms CO2
Ans : (A)

43. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising the—
(A) Members of the Lok Sabha only
(B) Members of the Rajya Sabha only
(C) Elected Members of both Houses of Parliament and Members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States
(D) Members of both Houses
Ans : (C)

44. One of the famous tragedies of Shakespeare is—
(A) The Merchant of Venice
(B) Macbeth
(C) The Tempest
(D) As You Like It
Ans : (B)

45. Water equivalent of a body is measured in—
(A) Degrees centrigrade
(B) Calories
(C) Grams
(D) Dynes
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the following countries has recently signed the Kyoto Protocol ?
(A) India
(B) USA
(C) China
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

47. The proposed site for private port in West Bengal is—
(A) Falta
(B) Kakdwip
(C) Kulpi
(D) Sagar Island
Ans : (C)

48. The most populous city of India in 2001 is—
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (D)

49. Editor of the Magazine ‘Sambad-Pravakar’ was—
(A) Debendra Nath Thakur
(B) Akshoy Kumar Dutta
(C) Pearychand Mitra
(D) Iswar Chandra Gupta
Ans : (D)

50. When the temperature of a metalrises, its electrical resistance—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not change
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

General Studies

1. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—

(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Reserve Bank of India

(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)

2. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?

(A) Agra

(B) Mirzapur

(C) Moradabad

(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?

(A) Bank of Baroda

(B) Punjab National Bank

(C) State Bank of India

(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—

(A) all children in the age group 3–10

(B) all children in the age group 4–8

(C) all children in the age group 5–15

(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)

5. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—

(A) employment to rural women folk

(B) employment to urban women folk

(C) employment to disabled persons

(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

6. Mixed economy means—

(A) existence of both small and big industries

(B) existence of both private and public sectors

(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors

(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)

7. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

8. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?

(A) Japan

(B) Denmark

(C) U.S.A.

(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Place)

(a) Vishakhapatnam

(b) Muri

(c) Gurgaon

(d) Panki

List-II (Industry)

1. Automobile

2. Ship-building

3. Fertiliser

4. Aluminium

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)

10. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) HDFC Bank

(C) Indian Overseas Bank

(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Mineral Production)

(a) Mineral Oil

(b) Gypsum

(c) Gold

(d) Bauxite

List-II (State)

1. Orissa

2. Karnataka

3. Gujarat

4. Rajasthan

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)

12. Consider the following statements—

Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.

Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Kerala

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?

(A) Dharwar system

(B) Gondwana system

(C) Cudappa system

(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)

15. Laterite soil is found in—

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia

(B) Masai — West Africa

(C) Red Indians — North America

(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)

17. Chilka lake is situated in—

(A) West Bengal

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Orissa

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)

18. Damodar is a tributary of river—

(A) Ganga

(B) Hugli

(C) Padma

(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)

19. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—

(A) provision for clean drinking water

(B) provision for cleaning rivers

(C) promoting communal harmony

(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)

20. National Dairy Development Board is located in—

(A) Anand

(B) Gandhinagar

(C) Vadodara

(D) Valsad

Ans : (A)

21. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Special List

Ans : (C)

22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kimberley —Diamond

(B) Havana —Meat packing

(C) Milan —Silk

(D) Sheffield —Cutlery

Ans : (C)

23. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—

(A) Lalitpur

(B) Pilibhit

(C) Lakhimpur Khiri

(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)

24. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—

(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala

(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar

(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)

25. The major coffee producing state in India is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Karnataka

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

26. March 24 (2008) was observed as—

(A) World AIDS Day

(B) World Disabled Day

(C) World Environment Day

(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day

Ans : (D)

27. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is notcorrectly matched ?

(A) Alamgirpur —Uttar Pradesh

(B) Banawali —Haryana

(C) Diamabad —Maharashtra

(D) Rakhigarhi —Rajasthan

Ans : (D)

28. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Chanda Pradyota

(C) Prasenajeta

(D) Udayana

Ans : (A)

29. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?

1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur

2. Assam

3. Nagaland

4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

30. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—

(A) Dinara Safina

(B) Ana Ivanovic

(C) Jelena Jankovic

(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova

Ans : (B)

31. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Brahmagupta

(C) Varahamihira

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

32. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?

(A) 57 years

(B) 78 years

(C) 135 years

(D) 320 years

Ans : (C)

33. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?

1. Mahapadma Nanda

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Rudradaman

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (D)

34. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—

(A) Cyrene

(B) Egypt

(C) Macedonia

(D) Syria

Ans : (B)

35. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?

(A) Maurya

(B) Sunga

(C) Satavahana

(D) Kushana

Ans : (A)

36. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?

(A) Konkani

(B) Malayalam

(C) Tamil

(D) Telugu

Ans : (D)

37. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—

(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi

(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

38. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Balban

(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Iltutmish

Ans : (C)

39. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?

(A) Saivites

(B) Saktas

(C) Vaishnavites

(D) Sun worshippers

Ans : (A)

40. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?

(A) Dasratha

(B) Brihadratha

(C) Kharavela

(D) Huvishka

Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?

(A) Farrukhsiyar

(B) Shah Alam-I

(C) Shah Alam-II

(D) Shujaud Daula

Ans : (C)

42. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—

(A) Lord Minto

(B) Lord Hardinge

(C) Lord Chelmsford

(D) Lord Reading

Ans : (B)

43. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—

(A) Afghanistan

(B) Burma

(C) Nepal

(D) Tibet

Ans : (A)

44. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?

(A) 16 : 1

(B) 32 : 1

(C) 40 : 1

(D) 64 : 1

Ans : (C)

45. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :

1. Abolition of Jazia

2. Construction of Ibadatkhana

3. Signing of Mahzar

4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans : (A)

46. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?

(A) Abbas Tyabji

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?

(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi

(B) Mukundi Lal

(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(D) Manmath Nath Gupta

Ans : (A)

48. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?

(A) Ras Behari Bose

(B) Batukeshwar Datt

(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh

(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans : (C)

49. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?

(A) Ramprasad Bismil

(B) Rajendra Lahiri

(C) Roshan Singh

(D) Ashfaqullah Khan

Ans : (A)

50. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?

(A) Dayaram Gidumal

(B) D. K. Karve

(C) Ramabai

(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Ans : (B)

51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) West Bengal

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Kerala

Ans : (C)

52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim

(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland

(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland

Ans : (C)

53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?

(A) Jamun

(B) Karonda

(C) Loquat

(D) Guava

Ans : (A)

54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Vitamin D

Ans : (C)

55. Bauxite is an ore of—

(A) Aluminium

(B) Boron

(C) Lead

(D) Silver

Ans : (A)

56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?

(A) Carbon dating

(B) Germanium dating

(C) Uranium dating

(D) All the above

Ans : (C)

57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?

(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(C) Nitrogen (N₂)

(D) Oxygen (O₂)

Ans : (A)

58. Electron-volt is the unit for—

(A) energy

(B) charge of electron

(C) potential difference

(D) power

Ans : (A)

59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—

(A) nuclear fission

(B) nuclear fusion

(C) nuclear spallation

(D) none of these

Ans : (A)

60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—

(A) Mars

(B) Venus

(C) Jupiter

(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)

61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—

(A) Copper

(B) Lead

(C) Cadmium

(D) Mercury

Ans : (B)

62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Malaria

(C) Cholera

(D) Hepatitis

Ans : (D)

63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—

(A) 50%

(B) 100%

(C) 125%

(D) 225%

Ans : (D)

64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—

(A) twins in which there is one male and one female

(B) twins in which both are females

(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam

(D) twins physically attached to each other

Ans : (D)

65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—

(A) full moon only

(B) new moon only

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) neither (A) nor (B)

Ans : (B)

66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?

(A) UNO—London

(B) WTO—Geneva

(C) ILO—New York

(D) FAO—Chicago

Ans : (B)

67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—

(A) N

(B) Zn

(C) Cu

(D) Mn

Ans : (B)

68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D) 80

Ans : (B)

69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—

(A) Sadbhavna Express

(B) Shanti Express

(C) Maitri Express

(D) Aman Express

Ans : (C)

70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—

(A) Anand Pawar

(B) Arvind Bhat

(C) Chetan Anand

(D) Zhendong Guo

Ans : (C)

71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Dehradun

(C) Shriharikota

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—

(A) Karnataka

(B) West Bengal

(C) Services

(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)

73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?

(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown

(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy

(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen

(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Ans : (B)

74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—

(A) Vienna

(B) London

(C) Paris

(D) Rome

Ans : (A)

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?

1. Madhuri Dixit

2. Ratan Tata

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Viswanathan Anand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (B)

1. A passive threat to computer security is—
(1) Malicious Intent
(2) Sabotage
(3) Accident Errors
(4) Espionage Agents
(5) None of these

2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification—
(1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate
(2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server
(3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server
(4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems
(5) None of these

3. ……………allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail—
(1) TCP/IP
(2) Ethernet
(3)WAP
(4) Token ring
(5) None of these

4. ‘DOS’ floppy disk does not have—
(1) A Boot Record
(2) A File Allocation Table
(3) A Root Directory
(4) Virtual Memory
(5) BIOS

5. ‘MICR’ technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to—
(1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition
(2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition
(3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition
(4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition
(5) None of these

6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a—
(1) repository
(2) data warehouse
(3) RAD
(4) CASE
(5) None of these

7. The……………….component is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database.
(1) data extraction
(2) end-user query tool
(3) end-user presentation tool
(4) data store
(5) None of these

8. A(n)…………….allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server.
(1) single-user license agreement
(2) network site license
(3) end-user license agreement
(4) business software license
(5) None of these

9. A polymorphic virus—
(1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file
(2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains
(3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program
(4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original, uninfected program
(5) None of these

10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is—
(1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable
(3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available
(5) None of these

11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy?
(1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open
(2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files.
(3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data.
(4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters.
(5) None of these

12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is—
(1) Biometrics
(2) Compression
(3) Encryption
(4) Ergonomics
(5) None of these

13. The word FIP stands for—
(1) File Translate Protocol
(2) File Transit Protocol
(3) File Typing Protocol
(4) File Transfer Protocol
(5) None of these

14. Voice mail—
(1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet
(2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet
(3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party
(4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations
(5) None of these

15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the translation from one set of protocol to another is—
(1) Bridge
(2) Gateway
(3) Router
(4) Modem
(5) All of these

16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
(1) VB Script
(2) Java Script
(3) CSS
(4) Java
(5) None of these

17. This………….tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data.
(1) Client
(2) Applications/Web server
(3) Enterprise server
(4) DBA
(5) None of these

18. RSA is—
(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem
(2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem
(3) Block Cypher
(4) Digital Signature
(5) None of these

19. A DVD-RAM is similar to a………………except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R
(2) floppy disk
(3) CD-RW
(4) hard disk
(5) None of these

20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration?
(1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse
(2) The length of the mouse cord
(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with
(4) The number of buttons the mouse has
(5) None of these

21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device?
(1) Through a power cable
(2) From an external power supply
(3) Directly from the computer’s power supply
(4) Through the USB cable
(5) None of these

22. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except—
(1) each computer must have a network card
(2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices
(3) there must be at least one connecting device
(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information
(5) None of these

23. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples.
(1) Rule discover
(2) Signal processing
(3) Neural nets
(4) Case-based reasoning
(5) None of these

24. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.
(1) Cookies
(2) Plug-ins
(3) Scripts
(4) ASPs
(5) None of these

25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action?
(1) Servlet Request
(2) Http Servlet Request
(3) Servlet Response
(4) Http Servlet Response
(5) None of these

Answers :
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1)
6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2)
16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3)
21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3)

1. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which of the following games ?
(A) Swimming
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Shooting
(D) Archery
Ans : (C)

2. ‘The Dronacharya Award’ is associated with—
(A) Eminent Surgeons
(B) Famous Artists
(C) Sport Coaches
(D) Expert Engineers
Ans : (C)

3. The author of ‘Gitagovinda’ was—
(A) Halayudha
(B) Jayadeva
(C) Kalhana
(D) Jona-Raja
Ans : (B)

4. Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’ ?
(A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sir Mohammad Iqbal
(D) Abdul Gaffar Khan
Ans : (A)

5. Baba Amte is famous as a ………
(A) Painter
(B) Singer
(C) Politician
(D) Social Worker
Ans : (D)

6. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian State ?
(A) Sushila Nayar
(B) Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Sulochan Modi
Ans : (C)

7. Who is the first non-Indian to receive the Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Martin Luther King
(B) Zubin Mehta
(C) Mother Teresa
(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Ans : (D)

8. Dr. M.S. Subbulakshmi has distinguished herself in the field of—
(A) Kathak
(B) Bharathanatyam
(C) Playing Violin
(D) Vocal Music
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Ravi Shankar–Sitarist
(B) M.F. Hussain–Tabla
(C) R.K. Narayan–Novelist
(D) Kaifi Azmi–Poet
Ans : (B)

10. Who said, “You give me blood, I will give you freedom” ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bhagat Singh
Ans : (C)

11. Nobel Prizes are not given for which of the following fields ?
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Peace
(D) Music
Ans : (D)

12. When is the ‘International Women’s Day’ observed ?
(A) March 8
(B) February 14
(C) May 10
(D) October 2
Ans : (A)

13. Indra Nooyi is the Chief Executive Officer of which company ?
(A) Pepsi
(B) Coca Cola
(C) LG
(D) Samsung
Ans : (A)

14. The 2008 Olympics will be held in—
(A) London
(B) Sydney
(C) Beijing
(D) Seoul
Ans : (C)

15. 6th April, 1930 is well known in the history of India because this date is associated with ……
(A) Dandi March by Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Quit India Movement
(C) Partition of Bengal
(D) Partition of India
Ans : (A)

16. The concept of ‘Din-e-Elahi’ was founded by which king ?
(A) Dara Shikoh
(B) Akbar
(C) Shershah Suri
(D) Shahjahan
Ans : (B)

17. The central point in Ashoka’s Dharma was—
(A) Loyalty to kings
(B) Peace and non-violence
(C) Respect to elders
(D) Religious toleration
Ans : (D)

18. Mahatma Gandhi for the first time practised his Satyagraha in India at—
(A) Chauri-Chaura
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Champaran
(D) Nauokhali
Ans : (C)

19. ‘Do or Die’ was one of the most powerful slogans of India’s freedom struggle. Who gave it ?
(A) Gandhiji
(B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Balgangadhar Tilak
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Ans : (A)

20. Who among the following formed a party named as ‘Forward Block’ ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(C) Chandrashekhar Azad
(D) J.L. Nehru
Ans : (A)

21. Where are the Dilwara Temple’s located ?
(A) Shravana Belgola
(B) Parasnath Hills
(C) Indore
(D) Mt. Abu
Ans : (D)

22. Who was the first Indian lady to preside over the Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Annie Besant
(C) Vijaylakshmi Pandit
(D) Amrita Shergill
Ans : (B)

23. In India, there are three crop seasons. Two of them are Kharif and Rabi, name the third one ?
(A) Barsati
(B) Grama
(C) Zaid
(D) Khari
Ans : (C)

24. In India agriculture of jute is maximum on which Delta area ?
(A) Ganga
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Brahamputra
(D) Godavari
Ans : (A)

25. The most discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Haryana
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (D)