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BANK CLERK MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Posted by admin on 24th July 2010

NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:

a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c  6)c  7)c  8)d   9)b  10)c  11)a  12)a  13)c  14)d

15)c  16)d  17)a  18)c  19)c  20)c  21)c

22)d   23)b   24)d   25)b

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Posted in Model Question Papers, NUMERICAL ABILITY, exam preperation | No Comments »

Questions for Bank Exams-Quantitative Anaylsis

Posted by admin on 8th April 2010

Directions—(Q. 1–6) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1. 196 × 948 ÷ 158 = ?
(A) 1156
(B) 1200
(C) 1188
(D) 1176
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. (786 × 64) ÷ 48 = ?
(A) 1050
(B) 1024
(C) 1048
(D) 1036
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

3. 3·5 + 11·25 × 4·5 – 32·5 = ?
(A) 18·275
(B) 21·625
(C) 32·375
(D) 25·45
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. (2640 ÷ 48) × (2240 ÷ 35) = ?
(A) 3520
(B) 3515
(C) 3495
(D) 3490
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. 7414 + 3698 + 1257 + 1869 = ?
(A) 14328
(B) 14438
(C) 13428
(D) 13248
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. (98360 + 25845 – 36540) ÷ 2500 = ?
(A) 36·585
(B) 30·082
(C) 32·085
(D) 35·066
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 7–11) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ?

7. 1, 9, 25, 49, ?, 169
(A) 100
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 121
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. 3, 23, 43, ?, 83, 103
(A) 33
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. 748, 737, 715, 682, 638, ?
(A) 594
(B) 572
(C) 581
(D) 563
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)

23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)

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Bank Exam Model Questions-Reasoning Paper

Posted by admin on 8th April 2010

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

Posted in Bank Examinations-BRB, Mental Ability Questions, Model Question Papers | No Comments »

Bank Clerk-Reasoning Ability Questions

Posted by admin on 16th March 2010

Part I (Reasoning) Bank Clerk

1. In a certain code ROPE is written as $3%6 and RITE is written as $4#6. How is PORT written in that code?

(1) %4$#

(2) $3%#

(3) $64%

(4) %3$#

(5) None of these

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word KNIGHT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

3. Pointing to a photograph Nikita said ‘She is the only grad daughter of my grandmother’s daughter’. How is the girl in photograph related to Nikita?

(1) Sister

(2) Niece/ daughter

(3) Aunt

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) Pineapple

(2) Guava

(3) Grapes

(4) Papaya

(5) Pear

5. If the word STABLE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter which letter will be third from the left end?

(1) S

(2) B

(3) A

(4) K

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code HOUSE is written as FTVPI, how is CHAIR written in that code?

(1) DIBJS

(2) SBJID

(3) SHBGD

(4) SJBID

(5) None of these

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) FH

(2) KM

(3) PR

(4) CE

(5) JM

8. If ‘ P   Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’, ‘P+Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ and ‘P   Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ then in G H +R D, how is G related to D?

(1) Cannot be determined

(2) Mother

(3) Niece

(4) Aunt

(5) None of these

9. If the digits of the number 5726489 are arranged in ascending order, how many digits will remain at the same position?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

10. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) 17

(2) 19

(3) 23

(4) 29

(5) 27

11. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters AEHT, using each letter only once?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

12. If ‘’ means ‘x’, $ means ‘+’, # means ‘ ‘ and ‘©’ means ‘-’ then what is the value of

360 # 24$ 56« 5© 48?

(1) 253

(2) 242

(3) 247

(4) 285

(5) None of these

13. If blue means pink, pink means green, green means yellow, yellow means red and red means white then what is the colour of turmeric?

(1) green

(2) yellow

(3) red

(4) pink

(5) None of these

14. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the second, the third, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word PASSIONATELY using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be formed your answer is X and if more than one word can be formed your answer is Y.

(1) A

(2) E

(3) L

(4) X

(5) Y

15. In a row of children facing north Manish is fourth to the left of Suresh who is tenth from the left end. Nisha is second to the right of Suresh and eighth from the right end of the row. Total how many children are there in the row?

(1) 19

(2) 20

(3) 21

(4) 18

(5) None of these

Directions (16-20): In these questions symbols ©, #, «, $ and @ are used with different meanings as follows:

‘A © B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’

‘A « B’ means ‘A is greater than B’

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/ are definitely true

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements: V#S, S©L, L©J

Conclusions: I. V © L

II. S © J

17. Statements: M#R, R©J, J#H

Conclusions: I. M #H

II. R © H

18. Statements: H$F, F@G, G«M

Conclusions: I. H «M

II. H «G

19. Statements: R©J, J «T,,T # L

Conclusions: I. R @ T

II. J @ l

20. Statements: W@T, T$K, K «F

Conclusions: I. W $ K

II. W @ K

Directions (21-25): In each question below there are three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it on the answer sheet.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is follows

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is follows.

Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

21. Statements:

Some pens are books.

All books are pencils.

All pencils are jars.

Conclusions:

I. All books are jars.

II. Some pens are pencils.

22. Statements:

Some bowls are spoons

Some spoons are forks

All forks are plates.

Conclusions:

I. Some bowls are forks.

II. Some spoons are plates.

23. Statements:

Some bottles are jars.

All jars are buckets.

All buckets are tanks.

Conclusions:

I. All jars are tanks.

II. Some buckets are tanks.

24. Statements:

Some phones are mobiles.

Some mobiles are computers.

Some computers are keys.

Conclusions:

I. Some phones are keys.

II. Some computes are phones.

25. Statements:

All papers are files.

Some files are folders.

All folders are bags.

Conclusions:

I. Some files are bags.

II. Some papers are folders.

Directions (26-30): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and

Give answer (1) if the data is Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

26. Lalita is in which direction with respect to Sangita?

I. Lalita is to the East of Prabha who is to the South of Sangita.

II. Vinita is to the North of Lalita who is to the East of Sangita.

27. What is the code for ‘Play’ in the code language?

I. In the code language ‘play and dance’ is written as ‘ka to pe’

II. In the code language enjoy the dance’ is written as ‘pe jo ra’.

28. How many children are there in the class?

I. Vandana’s rank in the class is five ranks below Nandini who is twenty fifth from the bottom.

II. Nandini’s rank is seventeenth from the top.

29. Who is tallest among Neeta, Sudha, Radha, Maya and Geeta?

I. Radha is shorter than Neeta and Sudha but not shorter than Maya and Geeta.

II. Neeta is not the tallest.

30. How many sons does Ramesh have?

I. F is sister of H who is son of Ramesh.

II. R is brother of H.

Directions (31-35): These questions are based on the following letter / number/ symbol arrangement . Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow:

5 D G E « 7 9 $ F 1 6 R % L I A J 3 B # 4 @ K P 8 U M 2

31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(1) $9F

(2) R6%

(3) 8PU

(4) #B4

(5) 3BJ

32. If all the symbols are removed from the above arrangement which element will be third to the left of thirteenth from the left?

(1) L

(2) R

(3) 6

(4) I

(5) None of these

33. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

EDH 9 « 7 I$F ?

(1) 6RI

(2) %R6

(3) R16

(4) %6R

(5) None of these

34. Which element will be fifth to the right of ninth from the right end if all the numbers are removed from the above arrangement?

(1) K

(2) @

(3) P

(4) #

(5) None of these

35. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a vowel?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Directions (36-40): These questions are based on the basis of following information. Study it carefully and answer the questions.

Eight executives J, K, L, M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting around a circular table for a meeting. J is second to the right of P who is third to the right of K. M is second to the left of O who sits between P and J, L is not a neighbour of K or N.

36. Who is to the immediate left of L?

(1) Q

(2) O

(3) K

(4) N

(5) None of these

37. Who is to the immediate left of K?

(1) N

(2) J

(3) Q

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

38. Which of the following is the correct position of N?

(1) Second to the right of K

(2) To the immediate left of K

(3) To the immediate right of M

(4) To the immediate right of K

(5) None of these

39. Who is third to the right of P?

(1) L

(2) J

(3) Q

(4) N

(5) None of these

40. Which of the following groups of persons have the first person sitting between the other two?

(1) PJO

(2) OPJ

(3) OPM

(4) MPO

(5) None of these

Directions (41-50): In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

ANSWERS

1. (4), 2. (3), 3. (2), 4. (3), 5. (2), 6. (4), 7. (5), 8. (2), 9. (4), 10. (5)
11. (3), 12. (3), 13. (3), 14. (5), 15. (1), 16. (5), 17. (2), 18. (1), 19. (4), 20. (1)
21. (5), 22. (2), 23. (5), 24. (4), 25. (1), 26. (3), 27. (4), 28. (5), 29. (5), 30. (5)
31. (5), 32. (2), 33. (4), 34. (1), 35. (2), 36. (5), 37. (3), 38. (4), 39. (1), 40. (2)
41. (3), 42. (4), 43. (1), 44. (5), 45. (1), 46. (4), 47. (5), 48. (1), 49. (2), 50. (3)

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Bank Clerk Exam-English Language Paper

Posted by admin on 16th March 2010

Part IV (ENGLISH LANGUAGE) Bank Clerk

Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it.

Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.

He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honour.

151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?

(1) For expanding his empire

(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent

(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals

(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature

(5) None of these

152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?

(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals’ society

(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river

(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous

(4) It badly affected his health

(5) None of these

153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?

(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him

(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses

(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses

(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional

(5) None of these

154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?

(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs

(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests

(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals

(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved

(5) None of these

155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?

(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world

(2) A person with religious mindset

(3) A social reformer

(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner

(5) A famous priest popular among the British

156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?

(a) A river in Western Luanda

(b) Scotland

(c) The origin of river Nile

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a) only

(5) (b) only

157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?

(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone’s dead body.

(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.

(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) only

(5) (c) only

158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result

(a) People in the world lost contact with him

(b) His whereabouts were not known.

(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

(5) None of these

159. In what way Livingstone’s exploration efforts were different from those of others?

(1) Livingstone’s exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests

(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world

(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes

(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population

(5) None of these

Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

160. REST

(1) remainder

(2) relax

(3) respite

(4) discovery

(5) most

161. EXPLORATION

(1) execution

(2) cultivation

(3) foundation

(4) discovery

(5) assimilation

162. TURNED

(1) rotated

(2) twisted

(3) spinned

(4) revolved

(5) arrived

Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

163. DENSE

(1) crowed

(2) dark

(3) sparse

(4) transparent

(5) opaque

164. BARREN

(1) uncultivated

(2) fertile

(3) forest

(4) unlevelled

(5) marshy

165. VAST

(1) miniature

(2) magnified

(3) enormous

(4) gigantic

(5) small

Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)

167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)

168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)

169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.

(4) /No error (5)

170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)

171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)

172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)

173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)

175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.

(1) obvious

(2) uncertain

(3) definite

(4) regular

(5) essential

177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.

(1) demand

(2) abundance

(3) peak

(4) excessive

(5) dearth

178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.

(1) rude

(2) obedient

(3) docile

(4) intolerant

(5) immature

179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.

(1) buy

(2) work

(3) submit

(4) pay

(5) decide

180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.

(1) that

(2) who

(3) whom

(4) which

(5) those

Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and

(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. “All Correct” as the answer.

181. (1) Discloser

(2) Indifference

(3) Cooperative

(4) Irreversible

(5) All Correct

182. (1) Repetition

(2) Conservative

(3) Acceptability

(4) Innovative

(5) All Correct

183. (1) Vigilant

(2) Judilee

(3) Receptive

(4) Possessive

(5) All Correct

184. (1) Decisive

(2) Destructive

(3) Accommodation

(4) Pioneer

(5) All Correct

185. (1) Compromising

(2) Enthusiasm

(3) Dislocation

(4) Immigration

(5) All Correct

Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.

(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.

(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.

(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.

(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.

(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.

186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.

Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded “Padma Bhushan”, Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).

191. (1) famous

(2) magnificent

(3) decisive

(4) renewed

(5) glorious

192. (1) insecure

(2) absolute

(3) overt

(4) incompetent

(5) efficient

193. (1) creating

(2) developing

(3) encouraging

(4) holding

(5) appointing

194. (1) magnifying

(2) growing

(3) improving

(4) judging

(5) deciding

195. (1) prospered

(2) won

(3) acquired

(4) made

(5) donated

196. (1) analysed

(2) appreciated

(3) cooperated

(4) recommended

(5) curtailed

197. (1) given

(2) registered

(3) conferred

(4) passed

(5) dictated

198. (1) aspires

(2) enjoys

(3) dedicates

(4) believes

(5) continues

199. (1) reason

(2) aim

(3) perspective

(4) way

(5) essence

200. (1) fame

(2) respect

(3) reputation

(4) disregard

(5) limelight

ANSWERS

151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)

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Exam Preperation-Questions for all Exams

Posted by admin on 16th March 2010

GENERAL ENGLISH

1. Choose the correctly spelt word

a) Techniquee (b) Technequ

(c) Technique (d) None of these

2. (a) Engredients (b) Ingradients

(c) Ingredients (d) None of these

Choose antonyms
3. Benign
a) Manifest (b) Meticous

c) Malignant (d) None of these

4. Concentrate
a) Focused (b) Locate

(c) Followed (d) None of these

Choose synonymous
5. Tackled
(a) Settled (b) Brought

(c) Handled (d) None of these
6. .Admonish
(a) Fight (b) Show
(c) Pacify (d) none of these

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

7. The 10th schedule in Indian constitution deals with
(a) Control of Panchayats over people
(b) Disqualification of members on grounds of defection
(c) Administrative control of municipalities
(d) Seats to each state and U.T. in the Rajya Sabha

8. Aircraft Industry is situated in
(a) Kanpur and Bangalore (b) Delhi and Noida
(c) Chennai and Kochi (d) Vishakhapatnam and Bhopal

9. Indian Military Academy is situated in
(a) Pune (b) Kirkee
(c) Dehradun (d) Meerut

10. Date of formation of SAARC is
(a) 8.12.1984 (b) 7.12.1985
(c) 8.12.1985 (d) None of these

11. Rheumatism is the disease of
(a) Bones (b) Joints
(C) Muscles (d) Teeth


GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

Choose the odd one out
12. (a) Lion (b) Bear
(c) Tiger (d) Horse
(e) Wolf

13. (a) Steam (b) Boil
(c) Chop (d) Bake
(e) Fry

14. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl’s

(a) Uncle (b) Brother

(b) Cousin (d) None of these

15. If P is taller than Q, R is shorter than P, S is taller than T but shorter than Q, then who among them is the tallest
(a) R (b) Q
(c) S (d) P

16. A woman is facing North-East, She turns 900 in the clockwise direction and then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is she facing now?

(a) North (b) South
(c) East (d) None of these

TEACHING APTITUDE

17 IQ test are less reliable because
(a) The do not evaluate persons fairly from different back ground
(b) They do not judge ability
(c) They measure performance at a particular time
(d) None of these

18. Teachers and Psychologist are mainly concerned with

(a) The habit formation (b) The process of learning

(c) The rectification of errors (d) Practical knowledge

19. Supervision is _______

(a) Regular (b) Therapeutic
(c) Democratic (d) All the above.

20 Boys scouts in the age-group of 7-11 years are called

(a) Cubs (b) Searchers

(b) Birds (d) Bulbul


NUMERICAL ABILITY

21. On what some of money the simple interest will raise to Rs.210 in 4 yearsat the rate of 7%

(a) Rs.750 (b) 650
(c) Rs.700 (d) 720

22. H.C.F OF
172 x 92 x 113 x 144 , 182 x 132 x92 x 11, 9 x 132 x 112 x 14
(a) 121 (b) 99
(c) 1331 (d) 1488

23. If “÷” is ‘-‘, ‘-‘ is x, ‘x’ is +, and ‘+’ is ÷ then
16 ÷ 4 – 4 x 2 + 2 =
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) 4

24 How many 2’s are there in following number series which are preceded by 7 but not followed by 4.
624897214372427672
(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
25 In a group Ram stood 6 from top and 32 from the bottom. How many boys are there in the group.

(a) 38 (b) 39
(b) 34 (d) 37

Answers: 1-c, 2-c, 3-c, 4- d, 5-c, 6-d, 7-b, 8-a, 9-c, 10-c, 11-b, 12-d, 13-c, 14-b, 15-d, 16-d,17-a, 18-b, 19-d, 20-d, 21- a, 22-b, 23- a, 24-c, 25-d.

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