NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:

a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c  6)c  7)c  8)d   9)b  10)c  11)a  12)a  13)c  14)d

15)c  16)d  17)a  18)c  19)c  20)c  21)c

22)d   23)b   24)d   25)b

1) An athlete runs 200 metres race in 24 seconds.His speed (in km/hr) is

(1) 20       (2) 24

(3) 28.5    (4) 30

Ans (4)

2)A train passes two bridges of lengths 800 m and 400 m in 100 seconds and 60 seconds respectively  The length of the train is

A 80m B.90m

C. 200 m 0. 150m

Ans (3)

3) Find the least multiple of 23, which when divided by’18, 21 and 24 leaves the remainder 7, 10 and 13 respectively

1 3013            2.3024

3. 3002          4. 3036

Ans 1

4)Find the greatest number of five digits which when divided by 3, 5, 8, 12 have 2 as remainder

1 99999          2.99958

3. 99960         4. 99962

Ans (4)

5. If 324 x 150= 54, 251 x 402 = 48 and 523 x 246= 120, then 651 x 345 =?

1. 120         2. 85

3. 144         4. 60

Ans (3)

6. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 12 x 7 =408 and 9 x 8 =207, then 13 x 7 =?

1. 190             2. 91

3. 901            4. 109

ans (4)

7. If NOIDA is written as STNIF, how MEERUT can be written in that code?

1. QIIVYX        2. RJJWZV

3. RJJWZY      4. RIIVYX

ans (3)

1. Which of the following is the winner of Miss Universe 2008
(A) Riyo Mori
(B) Zhang Zilin
(C) Dayana Mendoza
(D) Simaran Kaur Mundi

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

Answers:

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the ‘Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. ‘The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

Answers:

31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C)

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?

(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

Answers:

66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee

(3) Organization (4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt (2) Child

(3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?

(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) Spoon (2) jug

(3) Glass (4) saucer

(5) None of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33 (2) 40

(3) 37 (4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seeta (2) Geeta

(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal

(3) Raman (4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ? J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M (2) K9Q

(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,’le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in (2) pe

(3) se (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as ?, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # ? (2) ? + % ? # «

(3) ? + « % # ? (4) ? # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

(vi)

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa (2) Kamal

(3) Aman (4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go (2) Fun

(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates (2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9 (2) 21

(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’

Letters	M	Q	I	N	E	Y	U	G	R
Numeric Codes	2	5	3	7	1	8	4	6	9

Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as ?.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?

(3) 17328 (4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173? (2) 6%39

(3) 6%79 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?

(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42

(3) 1374? (4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) ?769 ? (2) 4769 ?

(3) 47691 (4) ?7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27^th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359 (2) 972

(3) 526 (4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two

(3) One (4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251 (2) 359

(3) 487 (4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526

(3) 487 (4) 251

(5) 359

Answers:

1. (3)	2. (5)	3. (2)	4. (2)	5. (2)
6. (3)	7. (4)	8. (2)	9. (1)	10. (1)
11. (4)	12. (3)	13. (2)	14. (1)	15. (5)
16. (4)	17. (2)	18. (5)	19. (1)	20. (5)
21. (3)	22. (4)	23. (1)	24. (2)	25. (3)
26. (1)	27. (2)	28. (5)	29. (2)	30. (5)
31. (3)	32. (2)	33. (4)	34. (5)	35. (1)
36. (1)	37. (3)	38. (5)	39. (2)	40. (5)
41. (4)	42. (5)	43. (2)	44. (1)	45. (3)
46. (1)	47. (4)	48. (3)	49. (3)	50. (5)

1 Who is called Indian Napolean?

Ans:- Samudhra Gupthan

2 How Many Planets are in Solar System ?

Ans:- 8

3 Which is the Highest Monument in India?

Ans:- Taj Mahal

4 How many spokes are there in our National flag?

Ans:- 24

5 Who was the first woman to receive Nobel Prize?

Ans:- Marie Curie

6 Kundara Vilambaram was a pronouncement by

Ans:- Veluthampi Dalava

7 The Periyar Tiger Sanctuary is located in the district

Ans:- Idukki

8 Maraman Convention is held on the banks of river

Ans:- Pampa

9 Paralysis is caused by disorders connected with

Ans:- Brain

10 “Yaksha Gana” is the folk dance of ”

Ans:- Karnataka

11 Human Rights day is observed on

Ans:- December 10

12 The number of West flowing rivers in Kerala?

Ans:- 41

13 Who is the First Winner of Jnanpith award?

Ans:- G.Sankarakurup

14 Bekal Fort is situated in the district of

Ans:- Kasargod

15 The Dance form Mohiniyattom was originated in

Ans:- Kerala

16 Who is the father of Economics?

Ans:- Adam Smith

17 Who has the right to open a cheque by cancelling the crossing

Ans:- Drawer

18 Decimal system of numbers has it s origin from

Ans:- India

19 An example of an amphibian

Ans:- Frog

20 An animal which conserves water for very long time

Ans:- Kangaroo rat

1) What does that acronym VGA stand for?

a) Extended Graphics Adapter
b) Enhanced Graphics Array
c) Video Graphics Array
d) Color Graphics Array

2) ISP stands for
a) Internet Service Provider;
b) Information Services Provider;
c) International Services Program;
d) Industrial Services program
3) One KB equals
a) 1000 Bytes;
b) 1000MB;
c) 1024 bytes;
d) 1024 MB
4) LAN means
a) Land Acquisition Notification;
b) Local Area Network;
c) Large Area Network;
d) Low Area Network
5) One MB equals
a) 1000 bytes;
b) 1000GB;
c) 1024 KB;
d) 1024 GB
6) MICR stands for
a) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition;
b) Magnetic Ink Charter Recognition
c) Magnetic Ink Charter Release;
d) Magnetic Ink Character Release
7) The communication equipment used in the computer is
a) CPU
b) MODEM;
c) Monitor
d) Mouse
Which of the following is a national net work ?
a) WAN
b) NICNET
c) WWW
d) HTTP
9) Which of the following can be used for Monitors ?
a) LCD
b) LAN
c) PIN
d) SQL
10) BIOS stands for
a) Basic Input Output System
b) Base Input Output System
c) Broad Information Output System
d) Basic Information Operating System
11) Which of the following is used for International Inter Bank Financial Communications?
a) SWIFT
b) CBS
c) WWW
d) SPNS
12) Which of the following not used in the Computers?
a) Key Board
b) Monitor
c) Power (AC/DC)
d) Handle
13) What does CBS mean?
a) Cost Benefit Services;
b) Current Business Services
c) Core Banking Services;
d) Cost of Banking Services
14) Marketing in Banks is the job of
a) Specialized marketing personnel;
b) every employee in the bank;
c) Manager of the bank;
d) Sales associates
15) The rate of interest on Savings Bank Account is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
16) The rate of interest on Fixed and Investment Deposits is stipulated by
a) The concerned bank;
b) RBI;
c) Indian Banks Association;
d) Government of India
17) The rate of interest on Savings Bank accounts is
a) 3.5 % p.a.;
b) 4%p.a;
c) 4.5% p.a
d) 5%p.a
18) Loan against the security of immovable property is by executing an agreement of
a) Assignment
b) Pledge;
c) Transfer;
d) Mortgage;
19) The regulator of the banking system in India is
a) RBI;
b) Finance Minister;
c) SEBI;
d) IBA
20) Which of the following is a financial asset?
a) Gold;
b) silver;
c) Shares in a demat account;
d) Land & buildings
21) NAV is normally used in respect of schemes floated by
a) Banks;
b) Mutual funds;
c) Insurance Companies;
d) Merchant banker
22) EMI is normally used in respect of which of the following loans?
a) Personal Loans;
b) Home Loans;
c) Consumer Loans;
d) All the above
23) The maximum period for which fixed deposit accounts allowed to be opened in a bank for an individual customer
a) 3 years;
b) 5 years;
c) 10 years;
d) 20 years
24) Zero balance account is generally allowed to be opened for
a) Salaried class;
b) businessmen;
c) foreign customers;
d) children
25) Four Ps of Marketing is also known as
a) Marketing Mix
b) Marketing Concept
c) Marketing environment
d) Marketing strategies

Answers

Q No Ans Q No Ans Q No Ans
1 d 11 a 21 b
2 a 12 d 22 d
3 c 13 c 23 c
4 b 14 b 24 a
5 c 15 b 25 a
6 a 16 a
7 b 17 a
8 b 18 d
9 a 19 a
10 a 20 c

1.Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1 ? 10 24
(a) 5 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 8
Ans (c)

2. Study each of the following table and choose the alternative which can best replace the question mark (?)
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 7
Ans (c)

3.In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
11, 5, 20, 12, 40, 26, 74, 54
(a) 5 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 26
Ans (c)

4. In the following question one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term.
8, 14, 26, 48, 98, 194, 386
(a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 98 (d) 194
Ans (b)

5. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 ? Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 ? Position in alphabet) + 1
CHANGE
(a) 77 (b) 79 (c) 83 (d) 80
Ans (d)

6. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 ? Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 ? Position in alphabet) + 1
FLUTE
(a) 153 (b) 157 (c) 151 (d) 149
Ans (a)

7. Calculate value of each word by the following formula:
Consonants = (2 ? Position of the letter in alphabet) – 1
Vowels = (3 ? Position in alphabet) + 1
BREAD
(a) 67 (b) 62 (c) 59 (d) 65
Ans (d)

8. In a certain code language, ?3a, 2b, 7c? means ?Truth is Eternal?; ?7c, 9a, 8b, 3a? means ?Enmity is not Eternal? and 6a, 4d, 2b, 8b? means ?Truth does not perish?. Which of the following means ?enmity? in that language?
(a) 3a (b) 7c (c) 8b (d) 9a
Ans (d)

9. In a certain code language, ?po ki top ma? means ?Usha is playing cards?; ?Kop ja ki ma? means ?Asha is playing tennis?; ki top sop ho? means ?they are playing football?; and ?po sur kop? means ?cards and tennis?. Which word in that language means ?Asha??
(a) ja (b) ma (c) kop (d) top
Ans (a)

10. A girl was born on September 6, 1970, which happened to be a Sunday. Her birthday has again fall on Sunday in
(a) 1975 (b) 1976 (c) 1977 (d) 1981
Ans (d)

11. A long rope has to be cut to make 23 small pieces. If it is double folded to start with how many times does it need to be cut?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 11 (d) 12
Ans (c)

12. There are 19 hockey players in a club. On a particular day 14 were wearing the hockey shirts prescribed, while 11 were wearing the prescribed hockey pants. None of them was without either hockey pants or hockey shirts. How many were in complete hockey uniform?
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 7
Ans (b)

13. In a class room three fourth of the boys are above 160 cm in height and they are 18 in number. Also out of the total strength, the boys form only two third and the rest are girls. The total number of girls in the class is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 30
Ans (c)

14. ?A? is east of ?B? and west of ?C?. ?H? is South-West of ?C?, ?B? is South-East of ?X?. which is farthest West?
(a) C (b) A (c) X (d) B
Ans (c)

15. A girl earns twice as much in December as in each of the other months. What part of her entire year?s earning does she earn in December?
(a) 2/11 (b) 2/13 (c) 3/14 (d) 1/6
Ans (b)

16. One watch is 1 minute slow at 1 pm on Tuesday and 2 minutes fast at 1 pm on Thursday. When did it show the correct time?
(a) 1.00 am on Wednesday (b) 5.00 am on Wednesday (c) 1.00 pm on Wednesday (d) 5.00 pm on Wednesday
Directions (Question 17 to 22) :Given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Mark (a) if only assumption I is implicit
Mark (b) if only assumption II is implicit
Mark (c) if either I or II is implicit
Mark (d) if neither I or II is implicit

17.Statement: Even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India. We still continue to import sugar.
Assumptions :I. The consumption of sugar per capita has increased in India.
II. Many of the factories are not in a position to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Ans (c)

18.Statement :I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption : I. Telephone facility is not available at Karshik.
II. Nowadays it is difficult to contact on phone.
Ans (b)

19.Statement : The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions : I. The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
II. the domestic manufacturers may oppose the decision.
Ans (a)

20. Statement : In Bombay, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their places of work on time.
Assumptions : I. Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the suburbs of Bombay.
II. Only railway trains run punctually.
Ans (a)

21. Statement :The private bus services in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing strike of its employees.
Assumptions : I. Going on strikes has become the right of every employee.
II. People no more require the services of private bus operators.
Ans (b)

22. Statement : Detergents should be used. to clean clothes.
Assumptions : I. Detergents from more lather.
II. Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
Ans (d)

23. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A D H
F I M
? N R
(a) P (b) N (c) K (c) O
Ans (c)

24. Which letter when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
(a) T (b) F (c) V (d) R
Ans (c)

25. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
1 4 9 ?
1 2 3 4
2 4 6 ?
(a) 16 and 8 (b) 36 and 4 (c) 25 and 5 (d) 49 and 7
Ans (a)

26. Which number when placed at the sign of interrogation shall complete the matrix?
6 6 8
5 7 5
4 3 ?
120 126 320
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4
Ans (c)

27. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Many scooters are trucks. II. All trucks are trains
Conclusions: I. Some scooters are trains. II. No truck is a scooter.
Ans (a)

28. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All cars are cats. II. All fans are cats.
Conclusions: I. All cars are fans. II. Some fans are cars.
Ans (d)

29. In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. All pilots are experts. II. All authors are pilots.
Conclusions: I. All authors are experts. II. No expert in an author.
Ans (a)

30.In the following questions, there are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Read both the statements and give answer as:
(a) If only conclusion I follows. (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either I or II follows. (d) If neither I nor II follows.
Statements: I. Some doctors are institutes. II. Some crooks are institutes.
Conclusions: I. All institutes are doctors. II. Some institutes are crooks.
Ans (b)

1. Minimum number that should be added to 23087 to make it completely divisible by 8 is ……
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans (a)

2. The angles ABC are 5×0, 7×0 and 6×0 respectively. What is the measure of the ? BCA?
(a) 500 (b) 600 (c) 700 (d) cannot decide
Ans (c)

3. 390? 1000 ? 201 ? 34 = ?
(a) 895 (b) 1540 (c) 1620 (d) 1780
Ans (c)

4. Ratio of costs of a table and a chair is 5:3 . If the tables cost Rs. 500 more than the cost of chair’s, what is the chair’s cost?
(a) Rs. 1250 (b) Rs. 1750 (c) Rs. 1450 (d) Rs. 750
Ans (d)

5. 1646 ? 13 ? 18 + 249 = ? + 875
(a) 786 (b) 687 (c) 2486 (d) 2356
Ans (a)

6. A number when divided by 5 leaves the remainder 3. What is the remainder when the square of the same number is divided by 5?
(A) 9 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 4
Ans (d)

7. 12% 650 + ? % of 400 = 110
(a) 25 (b) 18 (c) 8 (d) 80%
Ans (c)

8. train ‘A’ crosses a 160 m standing train ‘B’ in 15 sec and a standing person in 9 sec. What is its speed?
(a) 96 km/hr (b) 72 km/hr (c) 84 km/hr (d) 92 km/hr
Ans (a)

9. The type of matrix
?2 0 0
0 ?3 0
0 0 ?2
is?
(a) Scalar (b) Unit (c) Diagonal (d) Transpose
Ans (c)

10. The value of log 10000 is
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 6
Ans (a)

11. The sum of all numbers between 800 and 1100 which are divisible by 79 is
(a) 2846 (b) 2844 (c) 3844 (d) 3584
Ans (b)

12. The difference between the squares of any two consecutive integers is equal to
(a) Product of two numbers (b) Sum of two numbers
(c) Difference of two numbers (d) An even number
Ans (b)

13. 74 is divided into two parts so that 5 times one part and 11 times the others part are together equal to 454. Then the parts are
(a) 14,60 (b) 60,14 (c) 30,44 (d) 20,34
Ans (b)

14. If 4 workers can make 42 toys in 6 days, how many toys can 12 workers make in 3 days?
(a) 63 (b) 28 (c) 252 (d) 7
Ans (a)

15. The price of 349 coconuts are Rs 2094. What will be the price of 26 dozens of coconuts?
(a) Rs 1662 (b) Rs 1562 (c) Rs 2062 (d) Rs 1872
Ans (d)

16. The area of a rectangular field is 10 times of its length. If the breadth of the field is 10m, what is its length?
(a) 40m (b) 25m (c) 20m (d) data inadequate
Ans (d)

16. The salary of an employee was reduced by 40% first and then was increased by 50%. How much percent did he lose?
(a) 15% (b) 20% (c) 10% (d) 12%
Ans (c)

17. If 9 men & 15 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, then 39 men and 10 women will complete the same work in
(a) 7 days (b) 6 days (c) 5 days (d) 4 days
Ans (c)

18. One person took a loan of Rs. 5000 for 3 yrs on simple interest. After three years he paid back Rs. 6200 including the principal and the interest accrued. Calculate the rate of interest.
(a) 6% (b) 7% (c) 8% (d) 7.5%
Ans (c)

19. The smallest number which when added to the number 1154 makes it a perfect square is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans (b)

20. The present age of Ramesh is ? of his father’s age. After 4 years, the sum of their ages will be 68. What is the present age of Ramesh?
(a) 10 yrs (b) 15 yrs (c) 16 yrs (d) 12 yrs
Ans (b)

21. Sheet metal required to make a hollow cone of height 24 cm and radius 7 cm is
(a) 407 cm2 (b) 250 cm2 (c) 704 cm2 (d) 400 cm2
Ans (c)

22. If 42 men can do a work in 15 days, how many men are required to complete it in 21 days?
(a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 30 (d) none of these
Ans (a)

23. Average marks in Maths in a class of 40 students is 45. Average of all the 30 boys is 50. Then the average marks obtained by the girls is
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) none of these
Ans (a)

24. The largest angle of a quadrilateral is two times the smallest angle. If the angles form a series (a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d), the other two angles would be
(a) 600, 1200 (b) 800, 1000 (c) 900, 1000 (d) 700, 900
Ans (b)

25. A mixture of 20 kg of spirit and water contains 10% water. How much water must be added to this mixture to raise the percentage of water to 25%
(a) 4 kg (b) 5 kg (c) 8 kg (d) 30 kg
Ans (a)

26. A shopkeeper bought locks at the rate of 8 locks for Rs. 34 and sold them at 12 locks for Rs. 57. The number of locks he should sell to have a profit of Rs. 900 is
(a) 1400 (b) 1600 (c) 1800 (d) 2000
Ans (c)

27. A person travels equal distance with speed of 3 km/hr; 4 km/hr and 5 km/hr. and takes a total time of 47 minutes. The total distance (in km) is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans (a)

28. The perimeter of a circular and another square field are equal. Find the area in sq.m of the circular field if the area of the square field is 484 sq.m.
(a) 888 (b) 770 (c) 616 (d) None of these
Ans (c)

29. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 yrs at 10% annum is Rs. 2100, the simple interest on it at the same rate for 2 yrs will be.
(a) Rs. 1700 (b) Rs. 1800 (c) Rs. 1900 (d) Rs. 2000
Ans (d)

30. The diagonal of a square A is x + y. The diagonal of a square ‘B’ with twice the area of A is
(a) 2(x + y) (b) x + 2y (c) ?2 (x + y) (d) 2x + 4y
Ans (c)

31. If 10x+3y : 5n+2y = 9:5, then x : y is
(a) 3:5 (b) 5:3 (c) 2:5 (d) 1:2
Ans (a)

32. A conical tent of radius 12m and height 16m is to be made. Find its cost if canvas is Rs. 10 per m2
(a) Rs 7543 (b) Rs 7445 (c) Rs 7342 (d) 7600
Ans (a)

33. 1, 5, 14, 30, ?, 91
(a) 45 (b) 55 (c) 46 (d) 60
Ans (b)

34. 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 10, 10, ?, 13
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12
Ans (c)

35. 2, 6, 30, 60, 130, ?
(a) 210 (b) 216 (c) 200 (d) 160
Ans (a)

International Current Affairs 2010

• G-15 summit was held at Tehran on 16-17 May.
• Bangladesh handed over Ranjan Daimary of the National Democratic Front of Bodoland to India. The group was responsible for serial bombing in Assam in 2008.
• National League for Democracy (NLD) party of Myannmar’s democracy leader Aung San Sui Kyi was abolished after deadline to re-register as a political party was over.
• EU-IMF provide a $ 1 trillion rescue package to the Greece to resolve its debt crises.
• Pakistan successfully test fired two short range ballistic missiles, Shaheen I( range 650 Km) and Ghazani (range 290 Km) capable of carrying nuclear war heads and striking Indian cities.

National Current Affairs 2010

• Naxalites killed 47 people in a landmine blast between Dantewada and Sukma in Chattisgarh.
• Test fire of nuclear capable Agni-II missile was successfully carried out from Wheeler Island off the coast of Orissa on 17th May. Agni II has a range of 2000Km. It is 20m long two stage solid propelled ballistic missile. It was developed by Advanced System Laboratories alongwith DRDO & Bharat Dynamics Ltd.
• Supreme Court in a recent judgement upheld a rule that allows the adjustment of reserved category candidate SC/ST/OBC against their quota seats even if they manage to qualify an examination for govt services on merit.
• National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is the monitoring authority for the Right to Education Act which became effective from April 1, 2010.

Sports Current Affairs 2010

• England won 2010 ICC World Twenty20 Cricket tournament defeating Australia. The tournament was held at South Africa. Kevin Pieterson of England has been declared as Player of the Tournament.
• Australia won 2010 Women’s World Twenty20 Cricket tournament defeating New Zealand.
• India and South Korea were declared joint winner of 2010 Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Cup, after suspension of the final match due to heavy rains.India’s Sardar Singh has been declared as Best Player of the Tournament. Australia won the Bronze medal. The tournament was held at Ipoh (Malaysia). India had won the tournament earlier in 1985, 1991, 1995 & 2009.
• China won Thomas Cup ( Men’s Badminton) defeating Indonesia.
• In the World Youth Boxing Championship, held at Baku, Azerbaijan, India won 1 Gold & 1 Silver. Gold medal was won by Vikas Krishan and Silver medal was won by Shiva Thapa.
• India won bronze medal in the 2nd Asian Paragliding Championship held at Nishiewa, Japan.
• World Chess Champion Viswanathan Anand retained his title after defeating Veselin Topalov of Bulgaria in the World Chess Championship 2010.

Awards Current Affairs 2010

• Vandana Shiva has been awarded Sydney Peace Prize 2010 for her work in the field of social justice.

Persons in News 2010

• Gita Gopinath an Indian origin associate professor at Harvard Univ has been appointed a full professor, the first Indian woman in the Institution’s history to ge given this appointment.
• Former Vice President of India, Bhairon Singh Shekhawat died.
• Rima Fakih was crowned Miss USA 2010. She became the first ever muslim American Miss USA. She is of Lebanese muslim descent.
• Singer Christina Aguilera was named Ambassador against hunger by the United Nations World Food Programme.
• Rushanara Ali became first person of Bangladesh origin to be elected to the British Parliament.
• David Cameron elected Prime Minister of Britain. Nick Clegg became the Dy Prime Minister. Britain gets first coalition govt since World War-II. It is between Conservative and Liberal Democrats.
• Justice S H Kapadia sworn as new Chief Justice of India.
• Hari S Bhartia elected as President of Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) for 2010-11.
• Jessica Watson became the youngest person to sail unassisted around the world in a yatch.

Misc Issues

• International Mosaics Festival was held in Tunisia.
• Aman ki Asha- the name of the Indo Pak Business Meet held at New delhi.
• International Museum Day- 18 May.
• ’Yours Sincerely’ written by Natwar Singh.
• ’The Duel’ written by Tariq Ali.
• ’The Promise resident Obama, Year One’ written by Jonathan Alter.

1. What should come in the place of “?” in the following series?
5, 13, 17, 25, 29, ?, 41
(A) 36
(B) 38
(C) 35
(D) 37
Ans (D)

2. What should come in the place of “?” in the following series?
9, 16, ?, 36, 49
(A) 22
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 27
Ans (C)

3. Complete the series:
5, 13, 45, 189, 957, ____ ?
(A) 5742
(B) 4849
(C) 4797
(D) 5757
Ans (D)

4. Complete the series:
21, 39, 26, 44, 31, 49, _____?
(A) 54
(B) 36
(C) 44
(D) 53
Ans (B)

5. Complete the series:
254, 291, 322, 363, 398, ____?
(A) 443
(B) 421
(C) 462
(D) 439
Ans (A)

6. Complete the series:
16, 28, 52, 100, 196, ______ ?
(A) 342
(B) 392
(C) 388
(D) 362
Ans (C)

7. Complete the series:
8, 25, 51, 88, 138 ______?
(A) 203
(B) 196
(C) 213
(D) 223
Ans (A)

8. Complete the series:
536, 524, 500, 464, ____, 356
(A) 512
(B) 416
(C) 368
(D) 542
Ans (C)

9. What should come in the place of “?” in the following series?
___? , 109, 53, 25, 11, 4
(A) 445
(B) 214
(C) 221
(D) 196
Ans (C)

10. What should come in the place of “?” in the following series?
3, 10, 21, 64, ? , 388, 777
(A) 214
(B) 156
(C) 291
(D) 129
Ans (D)