b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

e. None of these

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

e. None of these

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c

14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c

22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b

2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha :
(A) 6 members
(B) 9 members
(C) 12 members
(D) 15 members

3. The first General elections under the Indian constitution were held in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1953

4. The President of India is elected by :
(A) Parliament
(B) State legislatures
(C) by the people directly
(D) by an electrol college consisting of the elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies.

5. Which article of the Indian constitution empowers the President of India to impose central rule on a state?
(A) Article 256
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 373

6. The time-gap between two sessions of parliament must not exceed :
(A) 3 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 9 months
(D) 12 months

7. The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within :
(A) 6 month
(B) 9 month
(C) 12 month
(D) 3 month

8. The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by :
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Gopalaswamy
(D) Jawahar Lal Nehru

9. The Union Cabinet is responsible to :
(A) The Rajya Sabha only
(B) The Lok Sabha only
(C) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(D) The President of India

10. Which of the following bodies has not been provided for by the Indian constitution ?
(A) Election Commission
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

11. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is :
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

12. The sanctioned strength of the Judges of Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice is :
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 20
(D) 26

13. Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishana
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) V. V. Giri
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

14. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is :
(A) 525 and 250
(B) 552 and 250
(C) 535 and 275
(D) 500 and 250

15. If the Vice-president were to submit his resignation, he would notify to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief Justic of India
(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

16. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 50
(D) 70

17. India is the third developing country to host the 2010 commonwealth Games. The other two are :
(A) Malaysia and South Korea
(B) Singapore and Jamaica
(C) Jamaica & China
(D) Malaysia & Jamaica

18. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the :
(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) President of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Lok Sabha

19. Article 370 of the Indian constitution deals with :
(A) The Emergency Powers of the President
(B) The special position of the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) The power of the President to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance
(D) Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the State

20. The Supreme commander of the Defence Forces of India is :
(A) The Defence Minister
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The Chief of the Army Staff
(D) The President of India

21. Which of the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Tapti
(D) Godavari

22. The Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the state of :
(A) Assam
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) West Bengal

23. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 15
(D) 14

24. The earth revolves round the sun and its causes :
(A) Differences in longitude and time
(B) Changes of seasons
(C) Deflection of winds and currents
(D) Formation of day and night

25. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in :
(A) Kilometres from the Equator
(B) Angles from the Equator
(C) Angles from the Poles
(D) None of the above

26. The earth is :
(A) Spherical
(B) Elliptical
(C) Oblate Spheroid
(D) Prolate Spheroid

27. Day and Night are equal at the :
(A) Equator
(B) Poles
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) Antarctic

28. The heaviest planet revolving round the sun is :
(A) Moon
(B) Jupiter
(C) Neptune
(D) Pluto

29. The biggest Planet is :
(A) Venus
(B) Mars
(C) Mercury
(D) Jupiter

30. The International Date line passes through :
(A) Exactly through 180° Longitude
(B) Equator
(C) Approximately 180° east or west meridian
(D) 0° Meridian

Answers:

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20.
(D) 21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (D) 30. (C)

31. The largest river of Asia is :
(A) Yangtze
(B) Yenisei
(C) Indus
(D) Mekong

32. Which country is called the ‘Sugar Bowl’ of the world?
(A) Cuba
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Norway

33. Which of the following countries has the largest area in the world?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Canada
(D) China

34. The world’s highest waterfall, the Angel Falls is situated in :
(A) Venezuela
(B) USA
(C) Guyana
(D) Australia

35. The universe is composed of :
(A) Earth
(B) Earth and the Sun
(C) Mat
(D) None

36. The Temperate Grasslands of South America are called :
(A) Pampas
(B) Steppes
(C) Savanna
(D) Evergreen grasslands

37. Rial is the currency of :
(A) Romania
(B) Iran
(C) Japan
(D) Libya

38. New Moore island is situated in the :
(A) Indian Ocean
(B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Arabian Sea
(D) China Sea

39. Which river in the world carries the maximum volume of water?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Mississippi Missouri
(D) Ganga

40. Which of the following rivers crosses the equator twice?
(A) Amazon
(B) Nile
(C) Congo
(D) Orinoco

41. The Indus Valley civilization is associated with :
(A) Egyptians
(B) Sumerians
(C) Chinese
(D) Mesopotamians

42. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for :
(A) Well planned cities
(B) Efficient civic organisation
(C) Progress of art and architecture
(D) All the above

43. Who was mainly worshipped in the Rig Vedic Period?
(A) Indra
(B) Vishnu
(C) Sun
(D) Trimurti

44. Who is regarded as the great law-giver of ancient India?
(A) Panini
(B) Manu
(C) Kautilya
(D) Dhruv

45. Which of the following is the oldest Veda?
(A) Samaveda
(B) Rigveda
(C) Yajurveda
(D) Atharvaveda

46. Who among the following was called Light of Asia?
(A) Mahavira
(B) Buddha
(C) Akbar
(D) Ashoka

47. Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
(A) Srigupta
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Kumargupta

48. The Upanishads are :
(A) A source of Hindu philosophy
(B) Books of Ancient Hindu laws
(C) Books on social behaviour of man
(D) Prayers to God

49. The biggest mosque of India was built by :
(A) Aurangzeb
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Akbar
(D) Jahangir

50. The first Battle of Panipat was fought between :
(A) Sher Shah Suri and Akbar
(B) Humayun and Ibrahim Lodhi
(C) Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi
(D) Babar and Ranasanga

51. The Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the period of Harshavardhana was :
(A) Fa-hien
(B) Hiuen Tsang
(C) Itsing
(D) Wang-sung

52. Who among the following belonged to the moderate group of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

53. Fa-hien came to India during the reign of :
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta II
(C) Harsha
(D) Kanishka

54. Which of the following temples was built by the Cholas?
(A) Shore Temple, Mahabali-puram
(B) Brihadeeswara Temple, Tanjavur
(C) Sun Temple, Konark
(D) Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

55. Which dynasty was well-known for excellent village administration?
(A) Pandyas
(B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas
(D) Chalukyas

56. The Ajanta Caves were built during the period of the :
(A) Guptas
(B) Kushanas
(C) Mauryas
(D) Chaulkyas

57. The eight-fold path was propounded by :
(A) Kabirdas
(B) Buddha
(C) Shankaracharya
(D) Mahavira

58. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Mauryas
(B) Indo-Greeks
(C) Guptas
(D) Kushanas

59. ‘The Vedas contain all the truth’ was interpreted by :
(A) Swami Vivekananda
(B) Swami Dayananda
(C) Raja Ram Mohan Rai
(D) None of the above

60. Sanchi portrays the art and sculpture of the :
(A) Jains
(B) Buddhists
(C) Muslims
(D) Christians

61. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(A) Manipuri
(B) Garba
(C) Kathakali
(D) Mohiniattam

62. Kathak is the principal classical dance of :
(A) South India
(B) Eastern India
(C) Northern India
(D) Western India

63. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh is :
(A) Kathakali
(B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi
(D) Bharatanatyam

64. The popular folk song of Uttar Pradesh is known as :
(A) Maang
(B) Kajari
(C) Baul
(D) Boli

65. The folk theatre of Bihar is calledÿ:
(A) Rammat
(B) Nautanki
(C) Bidesia
(D) Manch

Answers:

31. (A) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (B) 50. (C)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (B) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (C) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (C)

66. Which of the following classical dance originated in Tamil Nadu ?

(A) Kathakali
(B) Kathak
(C) Bharatanatyam
(D) Odissi

67. The oldest form of composition of the Hindustani vocal music is :
(A) Ghazal
(B) Dhrupad
(C) Thumari
(D) None of the above

68. Indian classical dance has been popularized abroad by :
(A) Malaika Arora
(B) Gopi Krishna
(C) Uday Shankar
(D) Yamini Krishnamurti

69. Tamasha is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belong to :
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

70. The Sangeet Natak Akademi fosters the development of dance, drama and music in the country. When was it established ?
(A) 1951
(B) 1953
(C) 1954
(D) 1956

71. When was the Planning Commission set up to prepare a blue print of development for the country?
(A) 1948
(B) 1949
(C) 1950
(D) 1951

72. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Sardar Patel

73. The National Development Council was set up in :
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1951
(D) 1962

74. The First Five-year plan covered the period :
(A) 1947-52
(B) 1950-55
(C) 1951-56
(D) 1952-57

75. Removal of poverty was the fore-most objective of which of the following five year plans?
(A) Third
(B) Fourth
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

76. Planning Commission is :
(A) Advisory body
(B) Executive body
(C) Government body
(D) Autonomous body

77. The Community Development Programme was launched in :
(A) 1950
(B) 1952
(C) 1956
(D) 1960

78. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan is the :
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) National Development Council

79. Which of the following commodities earn maximum foreign exchange for India?
(A) Jute
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Tea
(D) Sugar

80. The one rupee note bears the signature of :
(A) Secretary, Ministry of Finance
(B) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of these

81. How many banks were nationalized in 1969?
(A) 16
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 20

82. The Reserve Bank of India was established in :
(A) 1820
(B) 1920
(C) 1935
(D) 1940

83. The first Indian Bank was :
(A) Traders Bank
(B) Imperial Bank
(C) Presidency Bank of Calcutta
(D) None

84. The rupee coin was first minted in India in :
(A) 1542
(B) 1601
(C) 1809
(D) 1677

85. The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in :
(A) 1980
(B) 1982
(C) 1981
(D) 1989

86. Which of the following is not a chemical action?
(A) Burning of coal
(B) Conversion of water into steam
(C) Digestion of food
(D) Burning of Paper

87. The chemical name of vitamin C is :
(A) Citric acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Oxalic acid
(D) Nitric acid

88. Permanent harness of water is due to the presence of :
(A) Calcium bicarbonate
(B) Magnesium bicarbonate
(C) Calcium sulphate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate

89. Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG) consist of :
(A) Butane and propane
(B) Ethane and hexane
(C) Ethane and nonane
(D) None of these

90. Which of the following is present in hard water :
(A) Calcium
(B) Aluminium
(C) Sodium
(D) Chlorine

91. Ecology deals with :
(A) Birds
(B) Cell formation
(C) Tissues
(D) Relation between organisms and their environment

92. Meteorology is the science of :
(A) Weather
(B) Meteors
(C) Metals
(D) Earthquakes

93. Entomology deals with :
(A) Plants
(B) Animals
(C) Insects
(D) Chemicals

94. Numismatics is the study of :
(A) Coins
(B) Numbers
(C) Stamps
(D) Space

95. When ice melts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will :
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain the same
(D) First increase and then decrease

96. Which of the following does not admit any division?
(A) Atom
(B) Molecules
(C) Compounds
(D) All

97. What is the approximate velocity of sound in air :
(A) 3 m/s
(B) 30 m/s
(C) 300 m/s
(D) 3000 m/s

98. Which of the following is not a primary colour :
(A) Blue
(B) Green
(C) Red
(D) Black

99. Sound travels fastest through :
(A) Vacuum
(B) Steel
(C) Water
(D) Air

100. Who is the present Governor of Bihar ?
(A) R.S.Gavai
(B) R.L.Bhatia
(C) Buta Singh
(D) Syed Sibti Razi

Answers:

66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (C) 70. (B)
71. (C) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (C) 75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (B) 78. (D) 79. (C) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (A) 85. (B) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (C) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (D) 92. (A) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (B)

(1) Supervisor (2) Employee

(3) Organization (4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt (2) Child

(3) Father (4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahesh, Ram said. “The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother”. How is Ram related to Mahesh?

(1) Brother (2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) Spoon (2) jug

(3) Glass (4) saucer

(5) None of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33 (2) 40

(3) 37 (4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF (2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF (4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Geeta is elder to Seeta but not to Deepa. Gayatri is younger than Deepa. No one is elder to Fatima. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seeta (2) Geeta

(3) Gayatri (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh (2) Kamal

(3) Raman (4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three (2) One

(3) Two (4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ? J

11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5 (2) 4

(3) 7 (4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two (2) Five

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) # (2) 7

(3) U (4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M (2) K9Q

(3) ?D7 (4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,’le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in (2) pe

(3) se (4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister (2) Cousin

(3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO (2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO (4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as ?, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # ? (2) ? + % ? # «

(3) ? + « % # ? (4) ? # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR (2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL (4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

(vi)

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa (2) Kamal

(3) Aman (4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch (2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap (4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go (2) Fun

(3) Come (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap (2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers (4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates (2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours (2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Four (4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2 (2) 7

(3) 11 (4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT (4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9 (2) 21

(3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’

Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as ?.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28 (2) ?732?

(3) 17328 (4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173? (2) 6%39

(3) 6%79 (4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93 (2) ?413?

(3) ?4139 (4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72 (2) 0%42

(3) 1374? (4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) ?769 ? (2) 4769 ?

(3) 47691 (4) ?7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27^th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359 (2) 972

(3) 526 (4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None (2) One

(3) Two (4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None (2) Two

(3) One (4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251 (2) 359

(3) 487 (4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972 (2) 526

(3) 487 (4) 251

(5) 359

Answers:

* You need to talk about Banking – what the interviewer seeks for is a person who is flexible to be along with the given timings, someone who can cope up with writing bits and bobs or a person who can benefit them with more development .Your answer can have following bulleted points.

• Banking is a fast changing environment

• Retail banking is now very competitive – from telephone banking, retailers and etc Banking is thus now largely sales driven.

# You can even talk about IT getting changes and clearing banks offers a wide range of career opportunities for graduates – not just in branch banking but also in financial services, consultancy and corporate banking.

Have you applied to any other areas apart from banking?

Here off course your answer will hold some other finance or sales and marketing careers – insurance or accountancy, altogether these careers should have skills related to banking.

How do you feel about committing yourself to another three years of exams?

The professional examinations that you will almost certainly be required to take as part of your training are not always difficult in themselves, but do require determination and focus- especially as much of your study will be done in the evenings after a hard days work.

You should also be aware of the range of qualifications open to you – many of the large clearing banks offer the opportunity to gain qualifications in marketing, personnel or accountancy – not just banking.

Tell me about an experience in which you had to use tact?
Tact and diplomacy are important qualities in retail banking – the customer is (almost!) always right. You may have to tell an account holder diplomatically why they can’t have a loan for example, without provoking them into moving their account elsewhere.
To answer this type of question, think through everything you have done in the last five years – school, university, sports, clubs, societies, travel, vacation jobs etc. and try to think of situations where you had to demonstrate this and other qualities – do this before your interview.
If you have completed a number of employer application forms, then you should already have done this as this type of question is now common on application forms.

Who are our major competitors and what differences do you notice in our products?
The company will be expecting that you have done your research on the industry generally. You should be familiar with the bank’s products and services – literature on these can be picked up at any branch. Read the banks brochures and annual reports – these may be in the careers information room.

Be aware of current trends in the market and try to find out what each bank is doing in these areas.

What is SLR?
Every bank is required to maintain at the close of business every day, a minimum proportion of their Net Demand and Time Liabilities as liquid assets in the form of cash, gold and un-encumbered approved securities. The ratio of liquid assets to demand and time liabilities is known as Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). Present SLR is 24%. (reduced w.e.f. 8/11/208, from earlier 25%) RBI is empowered to increase this ratio up to 40%. An increase in SLR also restrict the bank’s leverage position to pump more money into the economy.

What is SLR ? (For Non Bankers)
SLR stands for Statutory Liquidity Ratio. This term is used by bankers and indicates the minimum percentage of deposits that the bank has to maintain in form of gold, cash or other approved securities. Thus, we can say that it is ratio of cash and some other approved to liabilities (deposits) It regulates the credit growth in India.

What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate

What are Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate?
Repo (Repurchase) rate is the rate at which the RBI lends shot-term money to the banks. When the repo rate increases borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. Therefore, we can say that in case, RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate; similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money, it reduces the repo rate

Thus, we can conclude that Repo Rate signifies the rate at which liquidity is injected in the banking system by RBI, whereas Reverse repo rate signifies the rate at which the central bank absorbs liquidity from the banks.

What is the difference between Bank Rate and Repo Rate?

Bank Rate vs Repo Rate
Bank Rate is the rate at which RBI allows finance to commercial banks in India. There are difference types of refinance that can be availed by banks and these are linked to Bank Rate. Thus, banks can borrow at this rate only to the extent of their eligibility for refinance.

On the other hand, Repo is a money market instrument, which enables collateralised short term borrowing and lending through sale/purchase operations in debt instruments. Under a repo transaction, a holder of securities sells them to an investor with an agreement to repurchase at a predetermined date and rate. In the case of a repo, the forward clean price of the bonds is set in advance at a level which is different from the spot clean price by adjusting the difference between repo interest and coupon earned on the security. In the money market, this transaction is nothing but collateralised lending as the terms of the transaction are structured to compensate for the funds lent and the cost of the transaction is the repo rate. Thus, a bank can borrow under repo provided he has the extra securities which it can lend temporarily to RBI for borrowing short term funds.

What is relation between Inflation and Bank interest Rates?
Now a days, you might have heard lot of these terms and usage on inflation and the bank interest rates. Bank interest rate depends on many other factors, out of that the major one is inflation. Whenever you see an increase on inflation, there will be an increase of interest rate also

What is a bank?
A bank is a financial institution whose primary activity is to act as a payment agent for customers and to borrow and lend money. It is an institution for receiving, keeping, and lending money

What is the activity of Banks?
Banks act as payment agents by conducting checking or current accounts for customers, paying cheques drawn by customers on the bank, and collecting cheques deposited to customers’ current accounts. Banks also enable customer payments via other payment methods such as telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, and ATM.

Banks borrow money by accepting funds deposited on current account, accepting term deposits and by issuing debt securities such as banknotes and bonds. Banks lend money by making advances to customers on current account, by making installment loans, and by investing in marketable debt securities and other forms of money lending.

Banks provide almost all payment services, and a bank account is considered indispensable by most businesses, individuals and governments. Non-banks that provide payment services such as remittance companies are not normally considered an adequate substitute for having a bank account.

Banks borrow most funds from households and non-financial businesses, and lend most funds to households and non-financial businesses, but non-bank lenders provide a significant and in many cases adequate substitute for bank loans, and money market funds, cash management trusts and other non-bank financial institutions in many cases provide an adequate substitute to banks for lending savings to.

What is Banking Business?
“Banking Business” means the business of receiving money on current or deposit account, paying and collecting cheques drawn by or paid in by customers, the making of advances to customers, and includes such other business as the Authority may prescribe for the purposes of this Act.

What is Accounting for Bank Accounts?
Bank statements are accounting records produced by banks under the various accounting standards of the world. Under GAAP and IFRS there are two kinds of accounts: debit and credit. Credit accounts are Revenue, Equity and Liabilities. Debit Accounts are Assets and Expenses. This means you credit credit accounts to increase their balances and you debit debit accounts to increase their balances.

This also means you debit your savings account every time you deposit money into it (and the account is normally in deficit) and you credit your credit card account every time you spend money from it (and the account is normally in credit).

However, if you read your bank statement, it will say the opposite- that you have credited your account when you deposit money, and you debit when you withdraw it. If you have cash in your account you have a positive or credit balance and if you are overdrawn it will say you have a negative or a deficit balance.

The reason for this is because the bank, and not you, has produced the bank statement. Your savings might be your assets, but it is the bank’s liability, so your savings account is a liability account which is a credit account and should have a positive credit balance. Your loans are your liabilities but the bank’s assets so they are debit accounts which should have a negative balance.

Below where bank transactions, balances, credits and debits are discussed, they are done so from the viewpoint of the account holder which is traditionally what most people are used to seeing.

What are the commercial roles of the Banks ?

However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:

• However the commercial role of banks is wider than banking, and includes:

• issue of banknotes (promissory notes issued by a banker and payable to bearer on demand)

• processing of payments by way of telegraphic transfer, EFTPOS, internet banking or other means

• issuing bank drafts and bank cheques

• accepting money on term deposit

• lending money by way of overdraft, installment loan or otherwise

• providing documentary and standby letters of credit (trade finance), guarantees, performance bonds, securities underwriting commitments and other forms of off balance sheet exposures

• safekeeping of documents and other items in safe deposit boxes

• currency exchange

• sale, distribution or brokerage, with or without advice, of insurance, unit trusts and similar financial products as a ‘financial supermarket’

What are the Economic functions of Banks?

The economic functions of banks include:
1. issue of money, in the form of banknotes and current accounts subject to cheque or payment at the customer’s order. These claims on banks can act as money because they are negotiable and/or repayable on demand, and hence valued at par and effectively transferable by mere delivery in the case of banknotes, or by drawing a cheque, delivering it to the payee to bank or cash.

2. netting and settlement of payments — banks act both as collection agent and paying agents for customers, and participate in inter-bank clearing and settlement systems to collect, present, be presented with, and pay payment instruments. This enables banks to economise on reserves held for settlement of payments, since inward and outward payments offset each other. It also enables payment flows between geographical areas to offset, reducing the cost of settling payments between geographical areas.

3. credit intermediation – banks borrow and lend back-to-back on their own account as middle men

4. credit quality improvement – banks lend money to ordinary commercial and personal borrowers (ordinary credit quality), but are high quality borrowers. The improvement comes from diversification of the bank’s assets and the bank’s own capital which provides a buffer to absorb losses without defaulting on its own obligations. However, since banknotes and deposits are generally unsecured, if the bank gets into difficulty and pledges assets as security to try to get the funding it needs to continue to operate, this puts the note holders and depositors in an economically subordinated position.

5. maturity transformation — banks borrow more on demand debt and short term debt, but provide more long term loans. In other words; banks borrow short and lend long. Bank can do this because they can aggregate issues (e.g. accepting deposits and issuing banknotes) and redemptions (e.g. withdrawals and redemptions of banknotes), maintain reserves of cash, invest in marketable securities that can be readily converted to cash if needed, and raise replacement funding as needed from various sources (e.g. wholesale cash markets and securities markets) because they have a high and more well known credit quality than most other borrowers.

What are the different channels of Banking you use in your daily life ?

Banks offer many different channels to access their banking and other services:

• A branch, banking centre or financial centre is a retail location where a bank or financial institution offers a wide array of face-to-face service to its customers.

• ATM is a computerized telecommunications device that provides a financial institution’s customers a method of financial transactions in a public space without the need for a human clerk or bank teller. Most banks now have more ATMs than branches, and ATMs are providing a wider range of services to a wider range of users. For example in Hong Kong, most ATMs enable anyone to deposit cash to any customer of the bank’s account by feeding in the notes and entering the account number to be credited. Also, most ATMs enable card holders from other banks to get their account balance and withdraw cash, even if the card is issued by a foreign bank.

• Mail is part of the postal system which itself is a system wherein written documents typically enclosed in envelopes, and also small packages containing other matter, are delivered to destinations around the world. This can be used to deposit cheques and to send orders to the bank to pay money to third parties. Banks also normally use mail to deliver periodic account statements to customers.

• Telephone banking is a service provided by a financial institution which allows its customers to perform transactions over the telephone. This normally includes bill payments for bills from major billers (e.g. for electricity).

• Online banking is a term used for performing transactions, payments etc. over the Internet through a bank, credit union or building society’s secure website.

How many type of banks there are ?
Banks’ activities can be divided into retail banking, dealing directly with individuals and small businesses; business banking, providing services to mid-market business; corporate banking, directed at large business entities; private banking, providing wealth management services to high net worth individuals and families; and investment banking, relating to activities on the financial markets. Most banks are profit-making, private enterprises. However, some are owned by government, or are non-profits.

Central banks are normally government owned banks, often charged with quasi-regulatory responsibilities, e.g. supervising commercial banks, or controlling the cash interest rate. They generally provide liquidity to the banking system and act as the lender of last resort in event of a crisis.

Type of Retail Banks

• Commercial bank: the term used for a normal bank to distinguish it from an investment bank. After the Great Depression, the U.S. Congress required that banks only engage in banking activities, whereas investment banks were limited to capital market activities. Since the two no longer have to be under separate ownership, some use the term “commercial bank” to refer to a bank or a division of a bank that mostly deals with deposits and loans from corporations or large businesses.

• Community Banks: locally operated financial institutions that empower employees to make local decisions to serve their customers and the partners

• Community development banks: regulated banks that provide financial services and credit to under-served markets or populations.

• Postal savings banks: savings banks associated with national postal systems.

• Private banks: manage the assets of high net worth individuals.

• Offshore banks: banks located in jurisdictions with low taxation and regulation. Many offshore banks are essentially private banks.

• Savings bank: in Europe, savings banks take their roots in the 19th or sometimes even 18th century. Their original objective was to provide easily accessible savings products to all strata of the population. In some countries, savings banks were created on public initiative, while in others socially committed individuals created foundations to put in place the necessary infrastructure. Nowadays, European savings banks have kept their focus on retail banking: payments, savings products, credits and insurances for individuals or small and medium-sized enterprises. Apart from this retail focus, they also differ from commercial banks by their broadly decentralised distribution network, providing local and regional outreach and by their socially responsible approach to business and society.

• Building societies and Landesbanks: conduct retail banking.

• Ethical banks: banks that prioritize the transparency of all operations and make only what they consider to be socially-responsible investments.

• Islamic banks: Banks that transact according to Islamic principles.

]]> http://solvedquestions.com/state-bank-of-india-clerk-interview-questions-2010-95.htm/feed 0 http://solvedquestions.com/sbi-clerk-recruitment-exam-2009-general-english-89.htm http://solvedquestions.com/sbi-clerk-recruitment-exam-2009-general-english-89.htm#comments Fri, 09 Apr 2010 02:42:30 +0000 admin http://solvedquestions.com/?p=89 Directions—(Q. 1–12) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Keshava, the washerman had a donkey. They worked together all day, and Keshava would pour out his heart to the doneky. One day, Keshava was walking home with the donkey when he felt tired. He tied the donkey to a tree and sat down to rest for a while, near a school. A window was open, and through it, a teacher could be heard scolding the students. ‘Here I am, trying to turn you donkeys into human beings, but you just won’t study !’ As soon as Keshava heard these words, his ears pricked up. A man who could actually turn donkeys into humans ! This was the answer to his prayers. Impatiently, he waited for school to be over that day. when everyone had gone home, and only the teacher remained behind to check some papers, Keshava entered the classroom.

‘How can I help you ?’ asked the teacher. Keshava scratched his head and said, ‘I heard what you said to the children. This donkey is my companion. If you made it human, we could have such good times together.’ The teacher decided to trick Keshava. He pretended to think for a while and then said, ‘Give me six months and it will cost you a thousand rupees.’ The washerman agreed and rushed home to get the money. He then left the donkey in the teacher’s care.

After the six months were up, Keshava went to the teacher. The teacher had been using the donkey for his own work. Not wanting to give it up, he said, ‘Oh, your donkey became so clever that it ran away. He is the headman of the next village.’ When Keshava reached the next village he found the village elders sitting under a tree, discussing serious problems. How surprised they were when Keshava marched up to the headman, grabbed his arm and said, ‘How dare you ? You think you are so clever that you ran away ? Come home at once !’

The headman understood someone had played a trick on Keshava. ‘I am not your donkey !’ he said. ‘Go find the sage in the forest.’ Keshava found the sage sitting under a tree with his eyes closed, deep in meditation. He crept up and grabbed the sage’s beard. ‘Come back home now !’ he shouted. The startled sage somehow calmed Keshava. When he heard what had happened, he had a good laugh. Then he told the washerman kindly, ‘The teacher made a fool of you. Your donkey must be still with him. Go and take it back from him. Try to make some real friends, who will talk with you and share your troubles. A donkey will never be able to do that !’ Keshava returned home later that day with his donkey, sadder and wiser.

1. Which of the following can be said about the teacher ?
(A) He had the ability to transform animals into human beings
(B) He took advantage of Keshava’s simple nature
(C) He had plotted with the village headman to cheat Keshava
(D) He enjoyed teaching children though he was poorly paid
(E) He was honest and used Keshava’s money to care for the donkey
Ans : (B)

2. Why did Keshava talk to his donkey while working ?
(A) He wanted to practise his communication skills because he wanted to make friends
(B) To entertain himself because he found his work monotonous
(C) The donkey helped him to find answers to his problems
(D) He regarded the doneky as his friend and confided in him
(E) He believed the donkey to be a human being in disguise
Ans : (E)

3. How did Keshava get his donkey back ?
(A) He threatened to take the teacher to the village elders
(B) The sage forced the teacher to release the donkey
(C) He asked the village headman for help
(D) The teacher returned it on learning that Keshava had learnt his lesson
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?
(a) The donkey was over burdened by the teacher.
(b) The teacher was cunning by nature.
(c) The sage laughed at Keshava and treated him unkindly.
(A) Both (a) & (c)
(B) Both (b) & (c)
(C) Only (b)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

5. Why was Keshava keen to meet the teacher one day ?
(A) Keshava wanted to ask the teacher how to make his donkey a better companion
(B) He wanted to learn more prayers as he was devout
(C) He had been reliably informed that the teacher had changed donkeys into human beings
(D) He heeded the teacher’s words of advice and wanted to study
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Why did Keshava interrupt the discussion among the village elders ?
(A) He did not agree with their views on different issues
(B) To confront the headman who had cheated him out of one thousand rupees
(C) He wanted them to get justice for him
(D) He was looking for the donkey and wanted to ask for directions
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

7. What made Keshava pull the sage’s beard ?
(A) He wanted to wake up the sage who was a sleep under the tree
(B) The headman requested him to move the sage from under the tree
(C) He wanted the sage to explain what had happened to the donkey
(D) He misunderstood the village headman and took the sage to be his donkey
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

8. Why did the teacher ask Keshava to leave the donkey with him for six months ?
(a) He realised that the donkey would require a lot of training.
(b) To reduce Keshava’s dependence on the donkey.
(c) He wanted to rescue the donkey from Keshava who did not know to treat the donkey properly.
(A) None
(B) Only (b)
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 9–10) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. trick
(A) joke
(B) skill
(C) mislead
(D) technique
(E) lunny
Ans : (C)

10. remained
(A) pending
(B) waited
(C) lasted
(D) survived
(E) continued
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–12) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. real
(A) false
(B) imitated
(C) dishonest
(D) imagine
(E) genuine
Ans : (A)

12. deep
(A) low
(B) distracted
(C) flat
(D) awake
(E) sleep
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–17) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No Correction is Required’, mark (E) as the answer.

13. The company has set up a foundation which helps students who do not have the necessary funds to study ahead.
(A) further to study
(B) of studying more
(C) to study onward
(D) for higher studies
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

14. If this land is used to cultivate crops it will be additionally source of income for the villagers.
(A) a source of additional
(B) an additionally source
(C) an additional source
(D) additionally the source
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

15. Belonged to this cadre, you are eligible for facilities such as free air travel and accommodation.
(A) since you belong to
(B) whoever belongs
(C) for belonging to
(D) to belong in
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

16. The bank has hired a consultant who will look into any issues which arise during the merger.
(A) is looking over
(B) will be looked after
(C) will look out
(D) looks down on
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

17. I had severe doubts about if I successfully run a company, but my father encouraged me.
(A) if I am successful in
(B) how should I successfully
(C) whether I could successfully
(D) that I would succeed to
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 18–22) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

18. RBI has attempted (A) to spend (B) financial (C) awareness (D) through this programme. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. In order to succeed (A) it is crucial (B) for an organisation to constantly (C) improve. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (E)

20. With some assistance (A) from her son she was enable (B) to settle (C) her debts (D) on time. All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)

21. Though the government initiated (A) a large sum (B) of money in the scheme (C) it was a failure. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (A)

22. We have prepared a detailed (A) report giving various (B) solutions (C) to resort (D) the problem. All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 23–27) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) I was pleased by their reaction.
(b) Writing my speech was easy, but I was unsure if I could motivate the employees to donate to those affected by the earthquake.
(c) Instead of throwing out their unusable articles, they had transferred them to my office in the name of donations.
(d) When a reputed company invited me to deliver a lecture on Corporate Social Responsibility, I agreed.
(e) It was an affluent company and the well dressed employees who met me afterwards promised to send lots of donations to my office.
(f) What I saw however when I opened the bags of ‘donations’ they had sent shocked me.

23. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

25. Which of the following should be t h e FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (b)
(B) (c)
(C) (d)
(D) (e)
(E) (f)
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 28–32) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

28. He has travelled (A) / all over the world (B) / yet he speaks (C) / several languages fluently. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. A successful company is (A) / any that makes a good (B) / profit and provides (C) / high returns to its shareholders. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

30. The agreement on (A) / which all of us have (B) / worked so hard will (C) / be sign tomorrow. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

31. It is necessarily to maintain (A) / a record of all transactions (B) / in case the auditors (C) / want to see it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Very few young trainees (A) / willingly undertake (B) / a posting to a branch (C) / located in a rural area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 33–40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Today, twenty-two years after the bank …(33)…, it has over a thousand branches all over the country and the staff …(34)… about twentythree lakh borrowers. We decided to operate …(35)… from conventional banks who would ask their clients to come to their office. Many people in rural areas found this …(36)…. Our bank is therefore based on the …(37)… that people should not come to the bank but that the bank should go to the people. Our loans are also …(38)… we give them for activities from candle making to tyre repair. We also keep …(39)… checks on the borrower through weekly visits. We do this to make certain that the family of the borrower is …(40)… from the loan.

33. (A) origin
(B) commence
(C) existed
(D) began
(E) inaugurated
Ans : (E)

34. (A) assemble
(B) cope
(C) interact
(D) deal
(E) handle
Ans : (E)

35. (A) differently
(B) similar
(C) reverse
(D) opposite
(E) identically
Ans : (A)

36. (A) worried
(B) upset
(C) panicking
(D) anxious
(E) threatening
Ans : (D)

37. (A) principle
(B) discipline
(C) opportunity
(D) chance
(E) advantage
Ans : (A)

38. (A) worth
(B) vary
(C) disburse
(D) contrast
(E) diver
Ans : (B)

39. (A) consistently
(B) regular
(C) often
(D) frequently
(E) daily
Ans : (B)

40. (A) benefiting
(B) serving
(C) welfare
(D) obliged
(E) progress
Ans : (A)

10. 121, 117, 108, 92, 67, ?
(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 41
(D) 37
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

11. 50, 26, 14, ?, 5, 3·5
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. The ratio of ducks and frogs in a pond is 37 : 39 respectively. The average number of ducks and frogs in the pond is 152. What is the number of frogs in the pond ?
(A) 148
(B) 152
(C) 156
(D) 144
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

13. The number of employees in Companies A, B and C are in a rtio of 4 : 5 : 6 respectively. If the number of employees in the three Companies is increased by 25%, 30% and 50% respectively, what will be the new ratio of employees working in Companies A, B and C respectively ?
(A) 13 : 10 : 18
(B) 10 : 13 : 17
(C) 13 : 15 : 18
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

14. The average of five positive numbers is 213. The average of the first two numbers is 233·5 and the average of last two numbers is 271. What is the third number ?
(A) 64
(B) 56
(C) 106
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

15. Sonali invests 15% of her monthly salary in insurance policies. She spends 55% of her monthly salary in shopping and on household expenses. She saves the remaining amount of Rs. 12,750. What is Sonali’s monthly income ?
(A) Rs. 42,500
(B) Rs. 38,800
(C) Rs. 40,000
(D) Rs. 35,500
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

16. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ARISE’ be arranged ?
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 180
(D) 120
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. What approximate amount of compound interest can be obtaied on an amount of Rs. 9650 at the rate of 6 p.c.p.a. at the end of 3 years ?
(A) Rs. 1737
(B) Rs. 1920
(C) Rs. 1720
(D) Rs. 1860
(E) Rs. 1843
Ans : (E)

18. A milkman sells 120 litres of milk for Rs. 3360 and he sells 240 litres of milk for Rs. 6120. How much concession does the trader give per litre of milk, when he sells 240 litres of milk ?
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 3·5
(C) Rs. 2·5
(D) Rs. 1·5
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. When 3626 is divided by the square of a number and the answer so obtained is multiplied by 32, the final answer obtained is 2368. What is the number ?
(A) 7
(B) 36
(C) 49
(D) 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 14. The difference between the first digit and the second digit of the two digit number is 2. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
(A) 56
(B) 48
(C) 45
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

21. A car runs at the speed of 50 kms per hour when not serviced and runs at 60 kms/hr. when serviced. After servicing the car covers a certain distance in 6 hours. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced ?
(A) 8·2 hours
(B) 6·5 hours
(C) 8 hours
(D) 7·2 hours
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–24) What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

22. (4863 + 1174 + 2829) ÷ 756 = ?
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 9
(E) 22
Ans : (C)

23. 37·35 + 13·064 × 3·46 = ?
(A) 89
(B) 83
(C) 76
(D) 79
(E) 85
Ans : (B)

24. 54 × 746 ÷ 32 = ?
(A) 1259
(B) 1268
(C) 1196
(D) 1248
(E) 1236
Ans : (A)

14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983

16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :

Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3

Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?

Ans : 36. (C) 37. (E) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)

Directions (151-165): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For many years, the continent Africa remained unexplored and unknown. The main reason was the inaccessibility to its interior region due to dense forests, wild -life savage tribals, deserts and barren solid hills. Many people tried to explore the land could not survive the dangers. David Living- stone is among those brave few who not only explored part of Africa but also lived among the tribals bringing them near to social milieu. While others explored with the idea of expanding their respective empires. Livingstone did so to explore its vast and mysterious hinterland, rivers and lakes. He was primarily a religious man and a medical practitioner who tried to help mankind with it.

Livingstone was born in Scotland and was educated to become a doctor and priest. His exploration started at the beginning of the year 1852. He explored an unknown river in Western Luanda. However, he was reduced to a skeleton during four years of traveling. By this time, he had become famous and when he returned to England for convalescing, entire London, along with Queen Victoria turned to welcome him. After a few days, he returned to Africa.

He discovered the origin of the River Nile in 1866. He again suffered many discomforts. He became too sick and could not even walk. He lost contact with rest of the world that grew anxious to know his whereabouts. Ultimately, it was Stanley, the American journalist, who found him after many efforts, but Livingstone had died in a tribal village in 1873. His body was brought to London and buried in West-minister with full honour.

151. Livingstone deserves credit for which of the following?

(1) For expanding his empire

(2) For enjoying the wild life of the continent

(3) For exploring part of Africa and living among the tribals

(4) For quenching his thirst for living in the company of nature

(5) None of these

152. What was the impact of four -year travelling on Livingstone?

(1) He could enjoy a social life among tribals’ society

(2) He derived satisfaction with the exploration of an unknown river

(3) He derived satisfaction as he became very famous

(4) It badly affected his health

(5) None of these

153. Which of the following shows that Livingstone had become very famous?

(1) Queen Victoria along with the people of London had come to meet him

(2) Queen Victoria arranged for the medical expenses

(3) The tribals were grateful to him for his medical expenses

(4) He was assigned the task of a priest although he was a medical professional

(5) None of these

154. Why were people not aware to the existence of Africa?

(1) It was inaccessible due to oceanic reefs

(2) Its territory was covered with dense forests

(3) People outside the continent were chased away by native tribals

(4) Explorers were afraid of the risks involved

(5) None of these

155. Livingstone can best be described by which of the following?

(1) A person with an urge for exploration of unknown parts of the world

(2) A person with religious mindset

(3) A social reformer

(4) A warmhearted medical practitioner

(5) A famous priest popular among the British

156. Which of the following was/ were explored by Livingstone?

(a) A river in Western Luanda

(b) Scotland

(c) The origin of river Nile

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (a) only

(5) (b) only

157. The American journalist Stanley can be credited for which of the following?

(a) Performing the last rites of Livingstone’s dead body.

(b) Relentless efforts for finding out the whereabouts of Living stone.

(c) The anxiety to explore undiscovered parts of the world.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) and (c) only

(4) (b) only

(5) (c) only

158. Livingstone became too sick to walk and, as a result

(a) People in the world lost contact with him

(b) His whereabouts were not known.

(c) American journalist, Stanley could not locate him despite many efforts.

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only

(3) (c) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

(5) None of these

159. In what way Livingstone’s exploration efforts were different from those of others?

(1) Livingstone’s exploration was restricted only to unknown rivers, whereas others explored dense forests

(2) Others explored with selfish motives; Livingstone explored to know the mysterious parts of the world

(3) Others explored new parts of the world for wealth, but Livingstone did so for religious purposes

(4) Being a medical practitioner he tied to explore medicines; others did for tribal population

(5) None of these

Directions (160-162): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

160. REST

(1) remainder

(2) relax

(3) respite

(4) discovery

(5) most

161. EXPLORATION

(1) execution

(2) cultivation

(3) foundation

(4) discovery

(5) assimilation

162. TURNED

(1) rotated

(2) twisted

(3) spinned

(4) revolved

(5) arrived

Directions (163-165): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

163. DENSE

(1) crowed

(2) dark

(3) sparse

(4) transparent

(5) opaque

164. BARREN

(1) uncultivated

(2) fertile

(3) forest

(4) unlevelled

(5) marshy

165. VAST

(1) miniature

(2) magnified

(3) enormous

(4) gigantic

(5) small

Directions (166-175): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5), i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

166. The interrogation made by (1) / him hardly yield (2)/ any concrete conclusion (3)/ about the crime. (4)/ No error (5)

167. What you had said (1)/ about the employees was (2)/ found to be correct (3)/ but it could not be proved. (4)/ No error (5)

168. When you had started (1)/ the work, you should (2)/ ensure that you (3)/ concentrate on it. (4)/ No error (5)

169. If you have good (1)/ control over breathing (2)/ you can float (3)/ on water effortlessly.

(4) /No error (5)

170. The way to the fort (1)/ was too difficult that (2)/ we could not reach (3)/ the farthest point. (4)/ No error (5)

171. When we heard the name (1)/ of our leader uttered (2)/ respectfully by the foreigners (3)/ we felt pride of him. (4)/ No error (5)

172. It goes to his credit (1)/that he was a clean man (2)/ in politics as well as (3)/ his person dealings. (4)/ No error (5)

173. His strictly discipline (1)/ had made him (2)/ very unpopular among (3)/all the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

174. Jamshedji knew that (1)/ an industrial revolution can (2)/ only brought in the country (3)/ by setting up iron and steel industry. (4)/ No error (5)

175. He being the oldest son (1)/ has requested us (2)/ to look after the problem (3)/ faced by the father. (4)/ No error (5)

Directions (176-180): Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

176. There is no need of any proof because everything is very________.

(1) obvious

(2) uncertain

(3) definite

(4) regular

(5) essential

177. Onions grow in ____ in this part and hence they are always very cheap here.

(1) demand

(2) abundance

(3) peak

(4) excessive

(5) dearth

178. Normally he is very ______ in his behaviour, but on that occasion he behaved very aggressively.

(1) rude

(2) obedient

(3) docile

(4) intolerant

(5) immature

179. If you ___ in advance, you will get some concession.

(1) buy

(2) work

(3) submit

(4) pay

(5) decide

180. I have in my album photographs of some of my very close friends __ I can never forget.

(1) that

(2) who

(3) whom

(4) which

(5) those

Directions (181-185): In each question below four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and

(4) have been printed of which, one may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (5) i.e. “All Correct” as the answer.

181. (1) Discloser

(2) Indifference

(3) Cooperative

(4) Irreversible

(5) All Correct

182. (1) Repetition

(2) Conservative

(3) Acceptability

(4) Innovative

(5) All Correct

183. (1) Vigilant

(2) Judilee

(3) Receptive

(4) Possessive

(5) All Correct

184. (1) Decisive

(2) Destructive

(3) Accommodation

(4) Pioneer

(5) All Correct

185. (1) Compromising

(2) Enthusiasm

(3) Dislocation

(4) Immigration

(5) All Correct

Directions (186-190): Rearrange the following sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(a) They are not bothered to break rules of the society, laws and even relations.

(b) But one thing is certain. They will one day realize that this importance needs to be shifted.

(c) People are generally ready to go to any extent to possess these materialistic aspects.

(d) All this shift will certainly be in favour of good and socially desirable values.

(e) This is all because of the undue importance attached to these aspects.

(f) Money, comfort, luxuries have dominated all other considerations these days.

186. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

187. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

188. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

189. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

190. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) B

Directions (191-200): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against, each five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Dr. Swaminathan is not only a (191) scientist but also an able administrator and an (192) organiser of projects. He has served the country by (193) many significant positions. His researches in the field of agriculture and his efforts for (194) the quality of wheat in particular, have (195) him laurels. Dr. Borlogue has highly (196) his works.

Dr. Swaminathan, is a honorary member of 14 important International Scientific Societies/ Councils including the Royal Society of London. Many Universities have (197) doctorate on him. In 1972, he was awarded “Padma Bhushan”, Dr. Swaminathan (198) in work, not in popularity and that is the (199) he never came into so much (200).

191. (1) famous

(2) magnificent

(3) decisive

(4) renewed

(5) glorious

192. (1) insecure

(2) absolute

(3) overt

(4) incompetent

(5) efficient

193. (1) creating

(2) developing

(3) encouraging

(4) holding

(5) appointing

194. (1) magnifying

(2) growing

(3) improving

(4) judging

(5) deciding

195. (1) prospered

(2) won

(3) acquired

(4) made

(5) donated

196. (1) analysed

(2) appreciated

(3) cooperated

(4) recommended

(5) curtailed

197. (1) given

(2) registered

(3) conferred

(4) passed

(5) dictated

198. (1) aspires

(2) enjoys

(3) dedicates

(4) believes

(5) continues

199. (1) reason

(2) aim

(3) perspective

(4) way

(5) essence

200. (1) fame

(2) respect

(3) reputation

(4) disregard

(5) limelight

ANSWERS

151. (3), 152. (4), 153. (1), 154. (2), 155. (1), 156. (3), 157. (4), 158. (5), 159. (2), 160. (1)
161. (4), 162. (5), 163. (3), 164. (2), 165. (5), 166. (2), 167. (5), 168. (1), 169. (2), 170. (2)
171. (4), 172. (4), 173. (1), 174. (3), 175. (2), 176. (1), 177. (2), 178. (3), 179. (4), 180. (3)
181. (1), 182. (1), 183. (3), 184. (5), 185. (2), 186. (2), 187. (3), 188. (5), 189. (1), 190. (4)
191. (1), 192. (5), 193. (4), 194. (3), 195. (2), 196. (2), 197. (3), 198. (4), 199. (1), 200. (5)

2. Graphical diagrams used to represent different multiple perspectives of a system include—
(1) use-case, class, and state diagrams
(2) state, interaction, derivative diagrams
(3) interaction, relationship, and class diagrams
(4) deployment, relationship, and use-case diagrams
(5) None of these

3. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the—
(1) database is structured
(2) database is well-designed
(3) database has no data
(4) database is relatively small
(5) database is relatively large

4. Which of the following are normally used to initialize a computer system’s hardware?
(1) Bootstrap memory
(2) Volatile memory
(3) Exteranl mass memory
(4) Static memory
(5) Random access memory

5. If you wanted to locate the hardware address of a local device, which protocol would you use?
(1) ARP
(2) RARP
(3) ICMP
(4) PING
(5) PONG

6. What is Internet 2?
(1) A new type of cabling system for Wide Area Networks
(2) A second local area network that can connect with another online LAN to share access
(3) A new standard for Internet browsers
(4) An association to develop advanced Internet technology
(5) None of these

7. The term, “hypertext”, means—
(1) Non-sequential writing
(2) Hypermedia
(3) Blinking text
(4) Text with heavy formatting
(5) None of these

8. While searching a website, you have been unable to find information that was on the site several months ago. What might you do to attempt to locate that information?
(1) Visit Google’s cached page to view the older copy.
(2) Forget about it, as there is no way to find this information.
(3) Visit a partner site of the organization to see if it is there.
(4) Use the wayback machine.
(5) None of these

9. Which kind of lock includes a keypad that can be used to control access into areas?
(1) Cipher
(2) Warded
(3) Device
(4) Tumbler
(5) Typelock

10. A……………..sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(1) system virus
(2) trojan horse virus
(3) file virus
(4) macro virus
(5) None of these

11. Carbon credit is meant for—
(1) Deforestation
(2) Protection of environment
(3) Rural infrastructure
(4) Diamond trading
(5) Precision farming

12. Acetic acid is present in—
(1) Vinegar
(2) Curd
(3) Lime
(4) Fish
(5) Rancid butter

13. Deep litter and cage systems are associated with—
(1) Dairy development
(2) Pig farming
(3) Poultry growing
(4) Quali farming
(5) Sheep rearing

14. When milk is churned, the cream is separated due to—
(1) Gravitational force
(2) Centrifugal force
(3) Frictional force
(4) Electro magnetic effect
(5) None of the above

15. Agricultural scientist who got Nobel prize for peace—
(1) Dr Norman E. Borlaug
(2) Dr M.S. Swaminathan
(3) Dr Hargovind Khorana
(4) Dr Chandrasekhar
(5) Dr Watson

16. Free flow of capital, goods and services is envisaged under—
(1) WTO
(2) Food Bill
(3) AEZ
(4) Essential commodities Act
(5) Warehouse Bill

17. Process involved in the conversion of milk to curd is—
(1) Oxidation
(2) Dehydration
(3) Hydrogenation
(4) Fermentation
(5) Hydration

18. National Policy for Farmers 2007 is formulated based on the recommendations of—
(1) Committee on Financial Inclusion
(2) Vaidyanathan Committee
(3) Forward Market Commission
(4) Working Group on Agriculture
(5) National Commission on Farmers

19. The Head Quarters of CFTRI—the leading institute for research on various food products is located at—
(1) Mysore
(2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai
(4) Gurgaon
(5) Jammu

20. Common refrigerant used in fridges and cold storages—
(1) Neon
(2) Freon
(3) Crypton
(4) Argon
(5) Ice

21. Who among the following is the author of the novel ‘Two Lives’?
(1) Salman Rushdie
(2) Vikram Seth
(3) Arundhati Roy
(4) Ruskin Bond
(5) Dhruv Sawhney

22. Who among the following has been appointed as the first Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(1) Vijay Shankar
(2) T.N. Seshan
(3) Wajahat Habibullah
(4) Mathew Varghese
(5) M.H. Baig

23. On which of the following dates is World AIDS Day observed?
(1) December 9
(2) December 1
(3) November 30
(4) October 24
(5) December 30

24. Which of the following is India’s first indigenous animation film?
(1) Hanuman
(2) Ramayana
(3) Harry Potter
(4) Mughal-e-Azam
(5) Ram Sita

25. Who among the following has been sworn in as the new Chief Minister of Jammu and Kashimir?
(1) Mufti Mohammed Sayeed
(2) Ghulam Nabi Azad
(3) Omar Abdullah
(4) M.H. Baig
(5) T. N. Seshan

ANSWERS:
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (5) 5. (1)
6. (4) 7. (2) 8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (1)
16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (2)
21. (2) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (2)