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English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 4-4-2010)
Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived an old lion. The lion, the king of the forest had grown old. He became frail and due to this, he could not hunt for food. With each passing day he became more and more weak. He realized that he would not live for long if it continued like that. He thought how could he arrange for his food ? After pondering over it for quite some time, he decided that he should have an assistant.

The lion thought that a fox would be the best person to handle this position as he was intelligent and clever. He summoned the fox and said, “Dear friend, I have always liked you because you are smart. I want to appoint you as my minister and advise me on all the affairs of the forest”. The old lion also asked the fox, that since he was the king of the forest, he should not have to hunt for his food. With respect to this, the fox’s first duty as minister was to bring him an animal to eat every day. The fox could not refuse the king and accepted the offer.

After the conversation, the fox went out to find an animal for the lion. On the way, he met a fat donkey. He said “My friend, I have got good news for you. You are very lucky. Our king, the lion has chosen you to be his chief minister. He asked me to meet you and inform you about his decision.” The donkey was scared of the lion and said, “I am afraid of the lion. He might kill me and eat me up. Why has he chosen me as his chief minsiter ? I am not even fit enough to be a minster as I am not as intelligent as other animals.” The clever fox laughed and, said, “Dear, you don’t know your great qualities. Our king is dying to meet you. He has chosen you because you are wise, gentle, and hard working. By serving the king, you will be the second most powerful animal of our forest. Imagine, all the other animals will respect you and seek favours from you.” “You must not lose your greatest chance in life.” So, the poor donkey was convinced and got ready to go along with the fox.

In this way, the fox managed to attract the donkey to the lion’s den. When the fox and the donkey approached, the lion was hungrier than ever. But he kept a smiling face and said, “Welcome, my dear friend. Come near me. You are my chief minister.” As the donkey came closer, the lion pounced on him and killed him instantly. The lion thanked the clever fox and was happy to get the food. As the lion sat down to take his meal, the fox said, “Your Majesty, I know you are very hungry but a king must take a bath before his meal”. The lion thought it was a good idea and told the fox to keep a watch on the carcass of the donkey”. The fox silently sat down to keep a watch of the donkey and thought to himslef, “I took all the trouble of getting the donkey here. It is I who deserve the best portion of the meal”. Thus, the fox cut open the head of the donkey and ate up the whole brain. When the lion returned he shouted, “What happened to the donkey’s brain ? I wanted to eat the brain first.” The fox smilingly replied, “Your majesty,
donkeys have no brains. If he had any, he would not have come near a lion at all”.

1. Why did the lion decide to have an assistant for him ?
(A) He was too lazy to hunt for himself
(B) He was old and weak and could not hunt any more
(C) He wanted someone to help him kill the fat donkey
(D) He could not handle the affairs of the forest alone
(E) None of these

2. Why did the lion select the fox as his assistant ?
(A) He had heard that the fox had good hunting skills
(B) He wanted the fox to take over as the king of the forest
(C) The fox had offered to let the lion have his leftovers
(D) He had planned to eat the fox after luring him to become his assistant
(E) None of these

3. Why did the fox say ‘our king is dying to meet you’ to the donkey ?
(A) The king would have died of hunger if the donkey did not meet him
(B) The king desperately wanted the donkey to be his chief minister as he was gentle and hard working
(C) The fox wanted to convince the donkey to come with him to the lion so that the lion could eat him
(D) The king wanted to meet the doneky since all other animals respected the donkey more than the king
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following best describes the donkey ?
(A) Honest
(B) Wicked
(C) Clever
(D) Opportunist
(E) Foolish

5. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage ?
When the lion did not see any brain in the donkey’s head ……….
(A) he spared his life and let him go
(B) he got upset with the fox for having selected such a donkey
(C) he took his decision to make him the chief minister back
(D) the fox explained to him that donekys do not have any brains
(E) None of these

6. What, according to the lion, was the fox’s primary duty as a minister ?
(A) To force all animals to respect their king and seek favours from him
(B) To convince the donkey to become his chief minister
(C) To take over as the king of the forest since the lion had grown too old
(D) To bring him an animal to eat every day
(E) None of these

7. What did the fox do when the lion went to take a bath before having his meal ?
(A) He secretly told the donkey to run away as the lion had planned to kill him
(B) He ate up the donkey’s brain as he had done all the hard work of bringing him to the lion’s den
(C) He held himself responsible for the death of the poor donkey and did not let the lion eat the donkey
(D) He killed the lion with the help of the donkey and became the king of the forest
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage ?
(A) Finally, the fox got the best part of the meal
(B) The donkey was appointed as chief minister to the king
(C) The donkey which the fox had brought for the king did not have any brain in his head
(D) The donkey was very intelligent and clever
(E) None is true

9. What did the lion do when he saw the donkey in his den ?
(A) He was impressed by the donkey and made him his chief minister
(B) He ordered the fox to kill him and eat his brain
(C) He went to take a bath before meeting the donkey
(D) He immediately noticed that the donkey did not have any brain
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is the moral of the story ?
(A) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop
(B) Fools are deaf to wise words
(C) Never believe an enemy’s sweet talks
(D) Morality can be best tested while one has power
(E) One can only lead a horse to water, but not make him drink it

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. POUNCED
(A) Climbed
(B) Grew
(C) Attacked
(D) Plunged
(E) Roared

12. FIT
(A) Healthy
(B) Deserving
(C) Strong
(D) Valuable
(E) Important

13. LOSE
(A) Misplace
(B) Suffer
(C) Dispose
(D) Defeat
(E) Miss

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. HANDLE
(A) Mismanage
(B) Drop
(C) Confront
(D) Decline
(E) Uncover

15. FRAIL
(A) Unhealthy
(B) Massive
(C) Rich
(D) Robust
(E) Civilised

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. When I called him yesterday, (A) / he offered to donate (B) / a handsome sum to (C) / the flood relief fund. (D) No error (E)

17. The student which (A) / you had thought (B) / so highly of has (C) / failed to pass the examination. (D) No error (E)

18. Government took strict action (A) / against the doctors on strike (B) / but they refused to (C) / resume to work. (D) No error (E)

19. If a person has been given (A) / diplomatic immunity then he (B) / cannot be arrested on a (C) / foreign land under any circumstance. (D) No error (E)

20. A group of birds (A) / migrate from southern part (B) / of the country to the (C) / Northern part during summer. (D) No error (E)

21. The constable said that (A) / the prisoner seize a (B) / fully loaded gun from a policeman (C) / and shot the prosecutor. (D) No error (E)

22. It will not be possible for you (A) / to catch the train on time (B) / because the nearest railway station (C) / is at ten kilometres away. (D) No error (E)

23. Each of the survivors of the Tsunami (A) (B) / have been offered free (C) / psychological consultation to ease their trauma, / by some of the top consultants. (D) No error (E)

24. Considering about her good credentials, (A) / the manager offered her a job (B) / in his organization (C) / despite the lack of experience. (D) No error (E)

25. Although he has been (A) / winning the elections (B) / all years, this year his popularity (C) / has substantially reduced. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To their surprise, however, the reward went to a beggar who had contributed only a Rupee instead of a wealthy donor.
(b) He received funds from many people as rich and poor donated generously to his trust.
(c) The man explained that the one Rupee given by the beggar was worth millions of Rupees as that was all the money he possessed and that he had made a much greater sacrifice than others.
(d) During the function everyone waited with bated breath to hear who had made the maximum contribution.
(e) A man went from town to town to collect money for his charitable trust.
(f) On returning he decided to hold a function and reward the person whose contribution had been maximum.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) f

30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer-sheet.

31. (a) OTHERS
(b) HER
(c) SHE
(d) MISTAKES
(e) FOR
(f) BLAMES
(A) cfaebd
(B) acfebd
(C) bdacfe
(D) cfdabe
(E) bdafce

32. (a) FINALISE
(b) WE
(c) DETAILS
(d) LATER
(e) THE
(f) WILL
(A) BFEACD
(B) BDCFEA
(C) BDCAEF
(D) ECFDBA
(E) BFAECD

33. (a) UV-RAYS
(b) ABSORBS
(c) THE
(d) LAYER
(e) HARMFUL
(f) OZONE
(A) ACBEFD
(B) CFDBEA
(C) ACBFED
(D) CFBDAE
(E) CBEAFD

34. (a) PRACTISING
(b) SPEECH
(c) SPENT
(d) HIS
(e) HE
(f) HOURS
(A) DBCFEA
(B) DBFCAE
(C) EBCDAF
(D) FACBED
(E) ECFADB

35. (a) TO
(b) AROUND
(c) SEE
(d) THEY
(e) HIM
(f) HATED
(A) DFAECB
(B) DBFAEC
(C) DFCAEB
(D) DFACEB
(E) CEBFAD

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. A large number of celebrities (A) have joined an NGO involved (B) in the movement for protection (C) of animal writes. (D) All correct (E)

37. The teacher liked the poem (A) so much that she requested (B) Saba to read it allowed (C) to the whole (D) class. All correct (E)

38. Breathe (A) deeply and inhale the sents (B) of Roses and Daisies in the landscaped gardens (C) surrounding (D) my house. All correct (E)

39. As the wind blue (A) harder every minute, (B) people got a fairly (C) good idea that a storm was approaching (D) the town. All correct (E)

40. The family had to bear (A) a leaky sealing (B) throughout the rainy season (C) as they could not afford (D) to get it repaired. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a sparrow on a banyan tree. She laid her eggs in the nest. One afternoon, a wild elephant came under the tree and in a fit of rage, broke a branch of the tree on which the nest was …(41)…. Unfortunately, all the eggs of the sparrow …(42)… after falling down though the sparrow was saved. The sparrow was full of grief and began weeping for her eggs.

A woodpecker, a close friend of the sparrow, heard her crying and asked her, “Why are you crying, my friend ?” The sparrow said, “The …(43)… elephant has killed my offspring. If you are a true friend of mine, suggest a way-to kill him”. The woodpecker …(44)… her and told her that he knew a fly and she would definitely help them kill the elephant.

Both of them went to seek the help of the fly. The woodpecker said, “A wild elephant has crushed my friend’s eggs. We need your help in killing him.” the fly replied, “One of my friends is a frog. Let us go to him and take his help too”. They went to the frog and …(45)… the whole incident. The frog said, “What can an elephant do before a united crowd like us ? Do what I tell you. Dear Fly, you go to the elephant and hum a sweet tune into his ears. When he closes his eyes in delight, the woodpecker will poke his eyes. This way, he will become …(46)…. When he gets thirsty, he will …(47)… for water. I will go to a marshy land and begin croaking there. …(48)… that there is water, the elephant will come there. He will sink into the marshy area and …(49)….

The next day in the noon, all of them played out the plan and the elephant was killed, as he drowned into a marshy area after being blinded by the woodpecker, when he closed his eyes in response to the music. Thus, the smartness of all the animals enabled the sparrow in taking her …(50)… on the elephant.

41. (A) Born
(B) Built
(C) Grown
(D) Broken
(E) Found

42. (A) Fell
(B) Escaped
(C) Damaged
(D) Survived
(E) Broke

43. (A) Defective
(B) Attacking
(C) Wicked
(D) Poor
(E) Harmless

44. (A) Ignored
(B) Protected
(C) Scolded
(D) Consoled
(E) Defended

45. (A) Said
(B) Informed
(C) Revived
(D) Mention
(E) Narrated

46. (A) Blind
(B) Unseen
(C) Regretful
(D) Sorry
(E) Dead

47. (A) Need
(B) Want
(C) Search
(D) Drink
(E) Demands

48. (A) Recalling
(B) Informed
(C) Sure
(D) Assuming
(E) Accepting

49. (A) Hurt
(B) Die
(C) Fall
(D) Kill
(E) Realise

50. (A) Help
(B) Revenge
(C) Anger
(D) Insult
(E) Fight

Answers :1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (E) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)

101. German attack on Poland was the immediate  cause of:

A. West Asian Crisis            B. Cold War   C. Second World War

D. First World War

102. Deficiency of Iron, causes:

A. Beri-Beri    B. Anaemia    C. Asthma      D. Pellagra

103. Horse power is a unit of:

A. electric current      B. velocity       C. power        D. heat

104. Which of the following Indian was given the Nobel Prize for Medicine?

A. C.V.Raman           B. Dr. Hargobind Khorana   C. Dr. Subrahmonian Chandrasekhar        D. Dr. M.S.Swaminathan.

105. Which of the following is an Indirect Tax:

A. Capital Gains Tax            B. Wealth Tax            C. Corporation Tax

D. Excise duty

106. The world’s largest satellite in solar system :

A. Moon          B. Ganymede            C. Triton         D. Neptun

107. Columbus discovered America in the year:

A. 1418          B. 1412          C.  1406         D. 1514

108. Rowlatt Act was passed in:

A.  1124         B. 1118          C.  1111         D. 1128

101. Who among the following is known as the Lady with lamp?

A. Annie Besant        B. Sarojini Naidu       C. Indira Gandhi

D. Florence Nightingale

112. The Jog Falls are situated on:

A. Cauvery river         B. Bima river C. Tapti river D. Sharavati river

113. Which of the following is an east flowing river of the Indian peninsula :

A. Tapti           B. Mahanadi              C. Narmada               D. Cauvery

114. White coal is:

A. Uranium     B. Ice C. Diamond   D. Hydro-electricity

115. Indian city famous for bangle industry is:

A. Lucknow    B. Sikandrabad         C. Agra           D. Ferozabad

116. The author of book “Between the Lines” is:

A. KuldipNayar          B. Nirad C. Choudary           C. Amritha Preetham

D. TarunTejpal

117. Murder in the Cathedral was written by:

A. John Keats            B. Richard Nixon       C. T.S.Eliot    D. Shakespeare

118. Hydrophobia is caused by:

A. hookworms           B. mental derangement        C. tobacco mosaic virus

D. rabies virus

111. Aspirin is an/a

A. analgesic   B. antidote     C. sedative    D. anesthetic

120. Gautama Buddha delivered his first sermon at

A. Mount Abu             B. BbdhGaya             C. Saranath   D. Sanchi

121. The branch of chemistry that deals with plants and animals and their life process is called

A.  bionomics            B. biochemistry         C. botany        D. biology

122. Which of the following was the first artificial satellite put in to orbit ?

A. Vostik 6     B. Sputnick    C. Vostok       D. Voskhod 2

123. Which of the following in a unit or brightness i

A. Lambert     B. Phot           C. Foot candle           D. Lux

124. The principle of specific gravity was discovered by:

A. Copernicus           B. Archimedes          C. Newton      D. Euclid

125. The people of Indus Valley Civilisation built their houses with:

A. thatch         B. wood          C. mud            D. bricks

126.  Kanishka tragedy involved:

A. Train           B.Nuclear rector        C. Aeroplane             D. Ship

127 The oldest religion in the world is:

A. Buddhism B. Hinduism   C.  Zionism    D. Christianity

128. Who among the following was the first man to go into space ?

A. Yuri Malyshev        B. Sally K. Ride         C. Neil Armstrong     D. Yuri Gagarin

121. The heart beat of a normal young man is ap­proximately:

A. 80 times a minute             B. 72 times a minute C. 100 times a minute

D. 12 times a minute

130. Which of the following scientists believed plants have hearts ?

A.J. C. Bose  B. Blaise Pascal       C. C.V.Raman           D. Albert Einstein

131.   Who won the battle of Jhelum?

A.   Ashoka    B. Babar         C.The Pandavas D.Alexander

132.  The term Third world refers to:

A. developing countries        B. advanced countries C. African countries

D. Superpower

133. Dialectical materialism was a doctrine intro­duced by:

A.   Adolf Hitler          B. V.I.Lenin    C. Jean – Jacques Rousseau D. Karl Marx

134.  Diego Garcia is an island in :

A. the Indian Ocean B. the Atlantic Ocean            C. the Mediterranean sea D. the Pacific Ocean

135.  The French Revolution took place in:

A. 1705          B. 1600          C. 1781          D. 1688

136.  Indian war memorial is situated in:

A.  Delhi         B. Hyderabad            C. Bombay     D. Allahabad

137.  Which amongst the following was a great centre of trade and commerce in the Gupta period ?

A.  Vatapi       B. Mathura     C. Taxila         D. Tamaralpti

138.  The planning Commission in India was set up in the year:

A. 1151          B. 1147          C. 1152          D. 1150

131.  The yellow colou r of urine is due to the pres­ence of:

A. Bile             B. Cholesterol            C. Urochrome            D. Blood

140.  Who is author of the book “One-day Wonder” ?

A. Sunil Gavaskar     B. Imran Khan C. Vivian Richard     D. Clive cloyd

141. What is the Chemical name of Heavy water ?

A. Ammonium Oxide            B. Hydrogen Peroxide          C. Hydrogen Oxide

D. Deuterium Oxide

142. The Indus Valley people establish commercial contacts with the:

A. Sumerians             B. Egyptians C. Greeks      D. Romans

143. Monsoon Wedding is a :

A. brand name of whisky      B. painting      C Cenema     D. Book

144. Who is the writer of Life Divine ?

A. Aurobindo Ghosh             B. Radhakrishnan     C. M.K.Gandhi

D. Vivekanandan

145. Who is called the Napoleon of India ?

A. Kanishka   B. Akbar         C. Samudra Gupta    D. Ashoka Answer:

146. Which is the world’s largest delta ?

A. Ganga        B. Narmada  C. Tames       D. Sunderbans

147. Relies of Buddha are preserved in a:

A. Joytya  B. Temple C. Stupa D. Vihara

148. Rukmani Devi Anudale is related to:

A. Theatre     B. Painting     C. Literature   D. Dancing

141.  National emblem lion has been taken from pillar of Ashoka which is at:

A. Saranath    B. Sanchi       C. Raipur        D. None of these

150.  In which city the Asian Games first took place?

A. Kuala Lampur       B. Beijing       C. Tokyo        D. New Delhi

Answers

101. C. Second World War

102. B. Anaemia

103. C. Power

104. B. Dr. Hargobind Khorana

105. D. Excise duty

106. B. Ganymede

107. B. 1412

108. C. 1111

101. D. Florence Nightingale

110. A. 11′hCentury

111. B. Andaman and Nicobar

112. D. Sharavati river

113. B. Mahanadi

114. A. Uranium

115. D. Ferozabad

116.A. Kuldip Nayar

117. C. T.S.Eliot

118. D. rabies virus

111. A. analgesic

120. C. Saranath

121. B. biochemistry

122. B. Sputnick

123.A. Lambert

124. B. Archimedes

125. D. bricks

126.C. Aeroplane

127. B. Hinduism

128. D. Yuri Gagarin

121. B. 72 times a minute

130. A. J. C. Bose

131.

132.A. developing countries

133. D. Karl Marx

134. A. the Indian Ocean

135. C. 1781

136.A. Delhi

137.C. Taxila

138.D. 1150

131.B. Cholesterol

140. A. Sunil Gavaskar

141. D. Deuterium Oxide

142. A. Sumerians

143. C. Cenema

144. A. Aurobindo Ghosh

145.C. Samudra Gupta

146.D. Sunderbans

147. C. Stupa

148. D. Dancing

149. A. Saranath

150. D. New Delhi

51. Mughal Sarai is situated in :

A.   Haryana          B. Orissa C. Uttar Pradesh         D. Bihar

52. Who wrote the book Affluent Society’ ?

A. Arun Shourie    B. Salman Rushdie         C. Charles Dickens    D. J.K. Galbraith

53. ‘Altimeter’ is used to measure :
A. rainfall      B. altitude       C. pressure       D. humidity

54. The Abbreviation AIDS stands for:

A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome           B. Acquired Immune Disease

Syndrome      C. Acquired Immune Disease Symptom    D. Acquired Immune

Deficiency Symptom.

55. Who said “To be or not to be, that is the question?”

A. Winston Churchill       B. JuliusCaesar   C. Admiral Nelson    D. Hamlet

56. ‘Dermatology’ is the science dealing with:

A. bacteria        B. shells         C. skin            D. tissues

57. The disease ‘Meningitis’ is associated with
A. stomach             B.skin         C.eyes        D.brain and spinal cord

58. What does the word ‘aphasia’ mean?

A. disease effecting skin                  B. loss of sight      C. speech disorders

D. loss of memory

59. ‘Hari Om Ashram Trust’ award is given in the Field of:

A. Fone arts                   B. Social Sciences      C. National Integration       D. Sciences

60. The book’ManviniBhavai’is written by:

A. PremChand      B. Nirad C. Chaudhary        C. Pannalal Patel      D. Amrith

61. Wireless telegraphy was invented by:

A.  Edison      B. Newton        C. Marconi               D. Bruno

62.The outer crust on the surface of earth is called:

A. stratosphere         B. lithosphere       C. hydrosphere     D. biosphere

63.Hygrometer is an instrument used in measuring:

A. relative humidity    B. density of milk    C. high temperature   Dspecific gravity

64. The age of a tree can be calculated by:

A. counting the number of branches           B. measuring its growth          C.measuring its height     D. counting the number of annual rings

65. Which is most important for the growth of children?

A. milk            B. proteins     C. vitamins        D. fats

66. In metabolism enzymes act as:

A. catalyst        B. oxidant        C. reductant            D. promoter

67. Yawning is due to:

A. to ward off lethargy           B. to ease digestion     C. accumulation of carbon

dioxide in the body   D. to feel relaxed

68. Hormones are useful for:

A. energy production            B. metabolic function            C. preventing disease

D. digestion and reproduction

69. Urea is excreted through:

A. intestine     B. skin            C. lungs          D. kidneys

70. Which of the following is NOT a party to the sharing of the Cauvery water ?

A. Andra Pradesh     B. Kerala        C.  Karnataka            D. Tamil Nadu

71. Kalinadi Hydro Electric Power Project is which of the following state?

A. West Bengal         B. Punjab       C. Karnataka             D. Haryana

72. The first nuclear submarine acquired by the Indian Navy is named as:

A. ChaKra      B. Nag            C. Maitri         D. Gangotri

73. Which of the following is NOT ‘Peeth’ of one of the four Sankaracharyas in India?

A. Badrinath   B. Mathurai    C.  Shringeri D. Dwaraka

74. The solubility of gases in liquids can be increased by:

A. decreasing temperature and increasing pres­sure  B. increasing temperature

C. decreasing pressure       D. increasing temperature and decreasing pressure

75. An axon is part of a/an:

A. epithetical cell       B. bone cell    C. nerve cell   D. muscle cell

76. A quantum of visible light is called

A.  hyperon     B. phonon       C. photon       D. proton

77.  The muscles attached to the bones are:

A. voluntary and striated       B. involuntary and straited    C. voluntary and smooth   D. involuntary and smooth

78. The egg-producing structure of an animal is called the:

A. Ovum         B. oviduct       C. ovale          D. ovary

79. Which among the following is the best source of protein?             ;

A. Apples       B. Wheat        C. Beans        D. Butter

80.How many ribs are there in a human body?

A.  1              B.  12.             C.22    D. 14

81. The first nuclear power station of India is at:

A. Pokhran     B. Kirkee        C. Kalpakkam           D. Tarapore

82. Which soil among the following is used for producing cotton?

A. black          B. red              C. laterite       D. terai

83. Who among the following in known as “Man of Destiny”

A. Mussolini   B. Bismarck   C. Nepolean D. Adolf Hitler

84. The famous rath yathra is traditionally associated with the temple at:

A. Dwaraka    B.Puri             C. Varanasi   D. Rameshwaram

85. Damodar Valley Project is a joint venture of:

A. Bengal and Orissa           B. Karnataka and Orissa     C. Bihar and Karnataka

D. Bihar and Bengal

86. How many languages are listed in the Indian Constitution ?

A. 13               B. 14               C. 15               D.1

87. The science of designing instruments or systems modeled after living organisms:

A. Bionics      B. Biometry    C. Biotelemetry         D. Biopsy

88. Which of the following is the science dealing with tumor?

A. oncology    B. serology     C. conchology            D. chronology

89.  The highway connecting Sinkiang in China with occupied Kashmir is called:

A. Pakistan-China highway B. Karakoram highway         C. Asian highway D. Siachen highway

90.  Milk is an example of

A. emulsion    B. suspension            C. gel              D. None of these

91.  Agronomy means:

A. science of forestry                        B. science of environment

C. science of soil and plants            D. science of space

92.  Heparin is used for:

A. loss of blood         B. clotting of blood    C. white corpuscle formation

D. red corpuscle formation

93.  What is lost during dehydration ?

A. Magnesium chloride        B. Calcium chloride C. Sodium chloride

D. Pottassium chloride

94.  Leprosy is treated by:

A. Tetracycline           B. Erythromycine       C. Penicillin    D. Sulphones

95.  An element which does not combine with oxygen is:

A. iodine         B. helium        C. nitrogen     D. chlorine

96.  Our eyes are most sensitive to

A. red light      B. violet light  C. yellow-green light             D. blue light  .

97. The development of an egg without being fertilised by a sperm is known as:

A. regeneration         B. metamorphosis    C. parthenogenesis  D. differentiation

98. Which of the following is considered as the ‘Electronic City of India?

A. Hyderabad            B. Bangalore             C. Chennai     D. Mumbai.

99. The famous Amarnath Shrine is in the state of

A. Uttar Pradesh       B. Gujarat       C. Himachal Pradesh  D. Jammu & Kashmir

100. Who among the following was twice awarded the Nobel prize in a scientific field?

A. Marie Curie           B. Linus Poling          C. Jonas Salk            D. Alexander Fleming

Answer

51. C. Uttar Pradesh

52. D. J.K. Galbraith

53. B. altitude

54. A. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

55. D. Hamlet

56. C. skin

57. D.brain and spinal cord

58. C. speech disorders

59. D. Sciences

60. C. Pannalal Patel

61. C. Marconi

62. B. lithosphere

63. A. relative humidity

64. D. counting the number of annual rings

65. B. proteins

66. D. promoter

67. C. accumulation of carbon

dioxide in the body

68. B. metabolic function

69. D. kidneys

70.A. Andra Pradesh

71. C. Karnataka

72.A. Chakra

73.B. Mathurai

74. A. decreasing temperature and increasing pressure

75.C. nerve c’ell

76. C. photon

77. A. voluntary and striated

78. D. Ovary

79. C. Beans

80. B. 12

81. D. Tarapore

82. A. black

83. C. Nepolean

84. B. Puri

85. D. Bihar and Bengal

86. D.18

87. A. Bionics

88. A. oncology

89. B. Karakoram highway

90. A. emulsion

91. C. science of soil and plants

92. B. clotting of blood

93. C. Sodium chloride

94. D. Sulphones

95. B. helium

96. C. yellow-green light

97. C. parthenogenesis

98. B. Bangalore

99. D. Jammu & Kashmir

100. A.  Marie Curie

01.’White Leg Horn’ is a disease which affects:

A. sambars                   B. elephants         C.cattle     D. birds

02. Atacama Desert is in :

A.  North America     B. South Africa     C. Russia      D. South America

03. Mahatma Gandhi University came in the ex­istence on:

A. 26th October 193           B. 26lh October 194    C.26th October 195 D. 26th October 196

04. Who is supposed to be the mythical founder of Jainism:

A. Mahavira      B.  Rishaba C. Parswanath      D.None of these

05. The Mughal Emperor who wrote their autobi­ographies

A. Akbar and Jehangir         B. Aurangazeb and Shahjahan        C. Babar and Humayun        D. Babar and Jehangir

06. Most  of the   Ajanta  Paintings   were completed during the reign of:

A. Satavahana          B. Vardhanas   C..Guptas    D. Sakas

07. Which one of the following contains the Gayatri Mantra ?

A. Yajur Veda            B.Upanishad        C Aranyaka         D. Rig Veda

08. The prose explanations of the vedas were known as the:

A. Brahmanas       B. Upanishads           C. Samhitas                   D. Aranyakas

09.In  which of the following modern Indian states Asokan’s inscriptions are

Not found ?

A. Karnataka        B.Andhra Pradesh               C.Tamil Nadu D. Orissa

10. The study of rocks is known as:
,A. seismology          B. paleontology     C. petrology            D. bathymetry

11. Gandhiji organised Dandi March in 1930 against:

A. the communal award       B.  imposition of tax on salt  C.  repression of the Congress      D. atrocities on Harijans

12. The battle of Plassey was a notable incident because:

A. the English East India Company got more trade commission            B. the British won over the French  C. Company’s rule came to an end      D. it established English control over Bengal

13. Chengiz Khan invaded India during the rule of:

A. Iltumish      B. Balban               C.  Alauddin Khilji           D. Qutubuddin Aibak

14. Who is the author of the book Ain-e-Akbari ?

A. Todarmal               B. Sheikh Saadi        C. Akbar        D. AbulFazal

15. Name the last Hindu King of Northern India:

A.  Harshavardhana             B. Samudra Gupta       C. Chandra Gupta Maurya

D. Vikramaditya

16. Which metal is mostly used for the manufac­ture of aeroplanes and is also

used by doctors to repair injured bones?

A. Pig iron  B. Tin             C. Aluminium            D. Silver

17. Which of the following is the national emblem of United Kingdom?

A. Rose          B.  Lilly        C. Eagle         D.   Shamrock

1. The Damodar Vally Corporation, the first mul­tipurpose rivervalley project of

Government of  India, was setup on:

A. 10th April 199      B. 7th July 194         C. 12 th July 19      D. 14 thJuly 199

19. Name of the author of the book ‘Tales from Shakespeare’ ?

A. Tolstoy       B. Charles Lamb       C.Thomas Hardy      D. William Shakespear

20. Bacteriophage is a kind of:
A.  RNA          B. Suga             C. Fungus   D. Virus

21. Census In India is being held rcgulary after every

A.  years       B.10 years C.6 years        D.12 years

22. J.J. Thomson discovered :

A. Positron    B. Electron        C.Proton            D.Neutron

23. Hercule.Poirot is the character in the books written by:

A. James Hardly Chase       B. P.G. Wodehouse C. George Bernard Shaw

D. Agatha Christie

24. Diagonal relationship exists between
A. Sodium and Magnesium B. Sodium and Boron           C Lithium and Magnesiunr   D. Potassium and Magnesium

25. In blood, a universal recipient belongs to the group:

A. A                       B.B             C. AB              D. O

26.       The paths of a projectile is a/an :

A.    trajectory            B. elliptical     C. hyperbola         D. parabola

27. Chese is a source of:

A.  both fats and proteins     B. proteins     C. fats D. none of these

2. Which of the following elementary particles is unstable ?

A. positron      B. neutron             C.electron             D. proton

29.The somatotrophic  hormone is secreted by :

A. thyroid gland          B. pituitary gland       C. adrenal gland        D. pancreas gland

30. The National Income  of India is compiled by:

A.  Planning Commission       B. Finance Commission      C. Indian statistical Institut   D. Central Statistical Organisation

31. The Indus valley civilization existed around :

A.   500 B.C.              B. 1700 B.C               C. 3000 B.C              D. 2500B.C

32. Which of the following diseases is caused by virus?

A. Scurvy                    B. Rickets      C. Polio       D. Beri-Beri

33. On which of the following rivers is Washing­ ton (USA) situated ?

A. Nile            B.Hudson         C. Danube               D.   Potomac

34.    Who discovered the medicine “Streptomycin”
A. Dewar        B. Waksman              C. Reed          D. Bushwell

35. Who wrote the book Mudraraff-shasam ?
A.  Vishakhadatta        B. Kalidas          C. Rabindranath Tagore           D. Bhavabhuti

36. Mahayana and Hinayana are the two divisions of:

A. Hinduism      B. Jainism               C.Christianity             D.Buddhism

37. Name the first Indian scientist to be awarded the Nobel Prize:

A.C.V.Raman       B. H.J.Bhabha     C.S. Chandrasekhar

D. M.N.Sahay

3. In which year was the Battle of Bauxar fought ?

A. 176      B. 1766          C. 1764          D.1765

39. Red, green and blue are known as:

A. Complementary colours  B. Primary colours    C. Secondary colours

D. Primary pigments

40. Earthquake waves travel fastest in
A. flexible rock           B. liquid water       C. motten rock      D. solid rock

41. Universal blood donors have blood type
A. 0              B. AB             C. B               D. A

42.Psychology is mainly concerned with:
A. structure of the body         B. diseases of the body       C. growth of the body

D. activity of the body

43. As a person becomes older, his blood pressure generally:

A. varies widely         B. remains the same            C. decreases   D.  increases

44. Which nutrient is not able to provide energy for cell use ?

A. fats B. carbohydrates       C. water          D. proteins

45. A large blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart is called :

A. an artery       B. a vein      C.nerve       D. a capillary

46. An important ore of uranium is :

A. chalcocite              B. pithchblende         C. taconite     D. carnallite

47. The hottest flame is produced by the:

A. atomic hydrogen torch       B. oxyacetylene torch          C. miner’s safety lamp

D. oxyhydrogen torch

4. Odissi is the dance style of:

A. Madhya Pradesh              B. Andra Pradesh     C. Haryana        D. Orissa

49. Who invented the telephone:

A.Newton       B. J.L.Baird                C. Alexander Graham Bell      D. Thomas Edison

50. The Ganapati festival is associated with which of the following states ?  .

A.Punjab         B.Maharashtra           C. Kerala    D.Karnataka

Answers

01. C.cattle

02. D. South America

03. A. 26th October 1983

04. B.  Rishaba

05. D. Babar and Jehangir

06. C..Guptas

07. D. Rig Veda

0. A. Brahmanas

09. C.Tamil Nadu

10. C. petrology

11. B.  imposition of tax on salt

12. D. it established English control over Bengal

13. A. Iltumish

14. D. AbulFazal

15. A.  Harshavardhana

16. C. Aluminium

17. A. Rose

1. B. 7th July 1948

19. B. Charles Lamb

20. D.D.Virus

21. B.10 years

22. B. Electron

23. D. Agatha Christie

24. C Lithium and Magnesiunr

25. C. AB

26. D. parabola

27. A.  both fats and proteins

2. B. neutron

29. B. pituitary gland

30. D. Central Statistical Organisation

31. C. 3000 B.C

32. C. Polio

33. D.   Potomac

34. B. Waksman

35. A.  Vishakhadatta

36. D.Buddhism

37. A.C.V.Raman

3. C. 1764

39. B. Primary colours

40. D. solid rock

41. A. 0

42. D. activity of the body

43. D.  increases

44. C. water

45. A. an artery

46. B. pithchblende

47. A. atomic hydrogen torch

4. D. Orissa

49. C. Alexander Graham Bell

50. B.Maharashtra

1. Transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called

(A) Advection
(B) Convection
(C) Conduction
(D) Radiation

Ans (A)

2. Which of the following revers is referred to as “Dakshin Ganga”

(A) Krishna
(B) Godavari
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Cauvery

Ans (B)

3. The clouds float in atmosphere because of their low-

(A) Temperature
(B) Viscosity
(C) Pressure
(D) Density

Ans (D)

4. Which one is the first atomic plant established in India?

(A) Kaiga
(B) Tarapur
(C) Narora
(D) Kota

Ans (B)

5. Who presides over the meeting of the council of ministers?

(A) The prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) Cabinet secretary
(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Ans (A)

6. What is the minimum age required to become Prime Minister of India?

(A) 18 Years
(B) 21 Years
(C) 25 Years
(D) 35 Years

Ans (C)

7. Which of the following gases is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?

(A) Acetylene
(B) Ethylene
(C) Methane
(D) Ethane

Ans (B)

8. The light waves are -

(A) Electric Waves
(B) Magnetic Waves
(C) Electromagnetic Waves
(D) Electrostatic Waves

Ans (C)

9. Which of the folowing process produce Hydrogen gas?

(A) Electrolysis of water
(B) Passing of steam over red hot iron
(C) Reaction of Zinc with Hydrochloric acid
(D) All of these

Ans (D)

10. The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles is a direct application of -

(A) Archmedes’ Principle
(B) Pascal’s Law
(C) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(D) Faraday’s Law

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following planet orbits around the sun in background direction from east to west?

(A) Earth
(B) Mercury
(C) Venus
(D) Jupiter

Ans (B)

General Questions

1. 1. The Indian Economy will grow as per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 6.7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.5%
(D) 8%
Ans (D)
2.

2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is—
(A) 26%
(B) 49%
(C) 51%
(D) 75%
Ans: (B)

3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the country ?
(A) 22.20%
(B) 21.30%
(C) 20.60%
(D) 19.90%
Ans: (C)

4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar
(C) T. S. Vijayan
(D) Laxmi Narayan
Ans: (C)

5. SEBI is a—
(A) Statutory body
(B) Advisory body
(C) Constitutional body
(D) Non-statutory body
Ans: (A)

6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)

7. When was the SAARC established ?
(A) On December 8, 1984
(B) On January 1, 1984
(C) On December 8, 1985
(D) On January 1, 1985
Ans: (C)

8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 20
Ans: (B)

9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ?
(A) Chelliah Committee
(B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)

10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Malta
(C) The Czeck Republic
(D) Poland
Ans: (A)

11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(A) Communication
(B) Social Integration
(C) Linking of Rivers
(D) Development of Highways
Ans: (D)

12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with—
(A) A drilling vessel
(B) A project of port development
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)

13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee” in—
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Ans: (B)

14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) is—
(A) K. C. Raina
(B) V. P. Shetty
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Som Mittal
Ans: (C)

15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for Indian economy has been estimated to be—
(A) 9.0%
(B) 9.2%
(C) 9.4%
(D) 9.6%
Ans: (D)

16. CENVAT is related to—
(A) Sales Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) Service Tax
Ans: (B)

17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to—
(A) All labours in rural areas
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labours in urban areas
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Ans: (B)

18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about—
(A) 35 : 65
(B) 32 : 68
(C) 28 : 72
(D) 25 : 75
Ans: (C)

19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for 2006-07 is estimated at—
(A) 80.11 MT
(B) 90.0 MT
(C) 93.4 MT
(D) 101.60 MT
Ans: (C)

20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is—
(A) U.P.
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans: (B)

21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the level—
(A) 9.2%
(B) 8.5%
(C) 11.0%
(D) 12.0%
Ans: (D)

22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to—
(A) Reliance Group
(B) Tata Group
(C) Birla Group
(D) NTPC
Ans: (B)

23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing universal elementary education ?
(A) Kerala and Orissa respectively
(B) Kerala and Bihar repectively
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively
(D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively
Ans: (B)

24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—
(A) 41110 MW
(B) 66463 MW
(C) 68963 MW
(D) 86283 MW
Ans: (B)

25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ?
(A) Service Sector
(B) Manufacturing Sector
(C) Transport and communication
(D) Agriculture Sector
Ans: (C)

26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is—
(A) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Secretary of Planning Commission
(D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission
Ans: (C)

27. 15th SAARC Summit was held in July–August 2008. The venue of the summit was—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)

28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector—
(A) Coal
(B) Iron
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum
Ans: (A)

29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Ans: (D)

30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 7–8 February, 2008 at—
(A) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Mohali (Punjab)
(D) Panchkula (Haryana)
Ans: (D)

31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?
(A) 28.5%
(B) 29.5%
(C) 30.5%
(D) 31.5%
Ans: (C)

32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ?
(A) U.P.
(B) M.P.
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans: (D)

33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)—
(A) Upto January 1, 2008
(B) Upto March 31, 2008
(C) w.e.f April 1, 2008
(D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009
Ans: (B)

34. What is ‘NIKKEI’ ?
(A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market
(B) Name of Japanese Central Bank
(C) Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission
(D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan
Ans: (A)

35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ?
(A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution
(B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
(C) Members do not require any minimum education
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1, 2007 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Goa
Ans: (A)

37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2007–08 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs. 50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at—
(A) Rs. 50,603 crore
(B) Rs. 52,603 crore
(C) Rs. 64,460 crore
(D) Rs. 64,640 crore
Ans: (A)

38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(A) Public Account Committee
(B) Shivaraman Committee
(C) Narsimham Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)

39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from—
(A) 1st April, 2001
(B) 25th Sept., 2001
(C) 30th Sept., 2001
(D) No scheme of such title has yet launched
Ans: (B)

40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) Reliance Infocom
(D) Bharti Tele
Ans: (B)

41. VAT is imposed—
(A) Directly on consumer
(B) On final stage of production
(C) On first stage of production
(D) On all stages between production and final sale
Ans: (D)

42. The newly elevated person as Joint Chairman–cum–Managing Director of National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is—
(A) S. Sridhar
(B) Viswapati Trivedi
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Venugopal Dhoot
Ans: (B)

43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with—
(A) Promoting cottage industry in villages
(B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth
(C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line
(D) All of these
Ans: (C)

44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with—
(A) Tata Steels
(B) SAIL
(C) HINDALCO
(D) Jindal Steels
Ans: (C)

45. OTCEI is—
(A) Atomic Submarine of China
(B) Economic policy of USA
(C) An Indian Share Market
(D) A defence research organisation
Ans: (C)

46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is—
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) C. B. Bhave
(C) Venugopal Dhoot
(D) Sunil K. Munjal
Ans: (B)

47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it has been raised to—
(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore
(B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore
(C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore
(D) Rs. 28,456 crore
Ans: (B)

48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
Ans: (D)

49. In Budget proposals for 2008–09, which of the following gives 24% contribution in revenue collection of union government ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Excise
(C) Corporation Tax
(D) Non-tax Revenue
Ans: (C)

50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI—UNME) is—
(A) 1980-81
(B) 1981-81
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1984-85
Ans: (D)

51. CAPART is related with—
(A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes
(B) Computer hardware
(C) Consultant service of export promotion
(D) Controlling pollution in big industries
Ans: (A)

52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs. 200 crore
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)

53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
(A) National Saving Certificate
(B) Indira Vikas Patra
(C) National Saving Scheme
(D) Public Providend Fund
Ans: (B)

54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on—
(A) 31 March, 1997
(B) 31 March, 1996
(C) 1 April, 1992
(D) 1 April, 1995
Ans: (A)

55. SEBI was established in—
(A) 1993
(B) 1992
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Ans: (C)

56. The working of SEBI includes—
(A) To regulate the dealings of share market
(B) To check the foul dealings in share market
(C) To control the inside trading of shares
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

57. The “Ad hoc Treasury Bill System” of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by ‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on—
(A) March 31, 1997
(B) April 1, 1996
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4•0% in 2004–05 which sliped down in 2008–09 (Budget Estimates) to—
(A) 3.2%
(B) 2.8%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 2.1%
Ans: (C)

59. According to the Economic Survey 2007–08 during the period April 3, 2007 and February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by—
(A) 5.6%
(B) 6.8%
(C) 8.9%
(D) 9.3%
Ans: (C)

60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
(A) It is not an agency of UNO
(B) It can grant loan to any country of the world
(C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country
(D) It grants loan only to member nations
Ans: (D)

61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at—
(A) 3.8%
(B) 5.9%
(C) 0.0%
(D) 6.3%
Ans: (A)

62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?
(1) FCI Food Corporation of India
(2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
(3) Cotton Corporation of India
(4) Jute Corporation of India
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3
(C) Only 3, 4
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)

63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ?
(A) April 5, every year
(B) July 9, every year
(C) October 9, every year
(D) December 9, every year
Ans: (D)

64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was—
(A) Rs. 4500 crore
(B) Rs. 5500 crore
(C) Rs. 10000 crore
(D) Rs. 12000 crore
Ans: (D)

65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as—
(A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively
(B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively
(C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively
(D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively
Ans: (D)

66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ?
(A) Price for APL is double of BPL price
(B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price
(C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt.
(D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt.
Ans: (A)

67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (2007–12) ?
(A) 42%
(B) 33%
(C) 29%
(D) 26%
Ans: (D)

68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in—
(A) Rural Post Offices
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Rural Development Bank
(D) Any of the above
Ans: (A)

69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08 at—
(A) Again 6%
(B) 4.3%
(C) 3.3%
(D) 2.6%
Ans: (D)

70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at—
(A) 110.52 Million Tonnes
(B) 112.24 Million Tonnes
(C) 114.42 Million Tonnes
(D) 115.9 Million Tonnes
Ans: (D)

71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by—
(A) 2008 end
(B) 2009 end
(C) 2010 end
(D) 2011 end
Ans: (A)

72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ?
(A) Bhootlingam Committee
(B) Wanchoo Committee
(C) Raj Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (d)

73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is—
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
Ans: (D)

74. The cause of deflation is—
(A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply
(B) Lack of imports as compared to exports
(C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ?
(A) Employment
(B) Size of exports
(C) Rural consumption
(D) National Income
Ans: (D)

76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
Ans: (C)

77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-09 budget proposals?
(A) 12 Paise
(B) 10 Paise
(C) 8 Paise
(D) 7 Paise
Ans: (C)

8. ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1995
(D) 1992
Ans: (A)

79. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(C) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(D) Co-existence of rich and poor
Ans: (C)

80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to—
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Ans: (D)

81. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by—
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) SBI
(D) UTI Bank
Ans: (C)

82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at—
(A) 16.4%
(B) 17.4%
(C) 17.8%
(D) 15.8%
Ans: (A)

83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans: (D)

84. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Cash with Bank
(D) Cash with Public
Ans: (B)

85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ?
(A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch)
(B) Airtel
(C) BSNL
(D) Reliance
Ans: (B)

86. The main objective of TRYSEM was—
(A) To train rural youth for self employment
(B) To train urban youth for self employment
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-operation) was officially declared on—
(A) March 5, 1996
(B) March 5, 1997
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) August 15, 1947
Ans: (B)

88. Inside Trading is related to—
(A) Share Market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) Public Expenditure
Ans: (A)

89. The largest source of National Income in India is—
(A) Service Sector
(B) Agriculture
(C) Industrial Sector
(D) Trade Sector
Ans: (A)

90. ‘Public Sector’ means—
(A) Government ownership on commerce and trade
(B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(C) Private ownership on trade
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)

91. NABARD is—
(A) A bank
(B) A board
(C) A block
(D) A department
Ans: (A)

92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in—
(A) Wheat and Potato
(B) Jwar and Oil Seeds
(C) Wheat and Rice
(D) Tea and Coffee
Ans: (C)

93. The period of 10th plan in India was—
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2001-2006
(C) 2002-2007
(D) 2003-2008
Ans: (C)

94. Economic Planning is in—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Not any specified list
Ans: (C)

95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is—
(A) 7.0%
(B) 6.75%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 6.0%
Ans: (D)

96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ?
(A) 26.4%
(B) 31.4%
(C) 34.8%
(D) 35.2%
Ans: (B)

97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ?
(A) 7.0%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.0%
(D) 8.5%
Ans: (B)

98. MRTP is related to—
(A) Monopoly and trade restrictions
(B) Inflation control
(C) Transport control
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulations
Ans: (A)

99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of—
(A) Fiscal Policy
(B) Industrial Policy
(C) Monetary Policy
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)

100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans: (B)

101. Which one of the following persons occupies the top rank in Forbes’ list of World’s richest people ?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Warren Buffett
(C) Carlos Slim Heln
(D) Laxmi Mittal
Ans: (B)

1)  Insurance works on the principle of

a Trust
b Sharing
c Randomness
d All of the above

2 Insurance is legitimate

a when an adverse happening is likely
b When an adverse happening is unlikely
c When an adverse happening is certain
d In all the above three situations

3 Insurance benefits replace

a All physical losses, in full
b All physical losses, partly
c All monetary losses, in full
d The monetary losses, but only to some extent

4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a People hesitate to buy life insurance because they are not aware of their needs
b People hesitate to buy life insurance because they prefer to enjoy the present
c Both the statements are correct
d Both the statements are wrong

5 Which is the right time for taking life insurance?

a When you are about to get married
b Soon after you have got married
c Just when you are joined a new job
d All the three ‘times’ are right

6 Retention of risk may be done conveniently by

a Large corporations
b Small companies
c Single individuals
d None of the three

7 A valuation is done by a life insurer because

a It is a statutory requirement
b It is necessary to be able to declare dividends to shareholders
c It tells the insurer how well it is managing the business
d All of the above

8 The reason for charging level premiums is

a Risk increases as age increases
b It is convenient to the policyholder
c It is convenient to the insurer
d All the above reasons

9 What does a premium depend upon?

a The place of worship visited by the person to be insured
b The state of health of the policyholder
c The decision of the underwriter
d The report of the agent

10 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a In group insurance, a single policy is issued covering many persons
b A master policy covers servants of a master
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

11 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the SA
b In a limited payment policy, there is a maximum limit to the term
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

12 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

13 Which of the following could be the basis of the cover in a group policy?

a Height of the life insured
b Age of the life insured
c Size of the insured’s family
d All the three above

14 Which one of the following statements is true with regard to Children’s policies?

a On vesting, the insured person has an option to change the term of the policy
b On vesting the insured person has an option to increase the SA
c Both the statements above are wrong
d Both the statements above are correct

15 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Every plan of insurance is a combination of two basic plans
b The name given to a plan indicates the benefits available under the plan
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statement s above are wrong

16 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Underwriting is done only when there is a medical examination
b Medical examination is necessary before a policy can be issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

17 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The underwriter determines the premium to be charged
b The underwriter is an employee of the insurer
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

18 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he will accept at OR
b If the underwriter feels that the risk is more, he may impose a lien
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

19 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The schedule of a policy is not altered after the policy is issued
b Changes in the terms of the policy are made through endorsements
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

20 The date of issue of the FPR indicates

a The date when the risk effectively begins
b The date when the next premium falls due
c The date when the policy will commence
d None of the above

21 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a In the case of SSS policies, renewal premium receipts are issued
b In the case of SSS policies, FPRs are issued
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

22 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Assignee is free from the assignor’s obligations under the policy
b A nomination is automatically cancelled when a loan is taken under the policy
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

23 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

24 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure can be done only with the consent of the policyholder
b Foreclosure can be done only after informing the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

25 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Revivals are not done unless the entire outstanding premium is paid
b Revivals are not done unless the underwriter agrees
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

26 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Foreclosure action cannot be taken till a notice is served on the policyholder
b When a foreclosure action is taken, nothing is payable to the policyholder
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

27 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The beneficiaries under the MWP Act can be any member of the family
b A policy can be taken under the MMWP Act for the benefit of parents
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

28 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A presumption of death is not the same as proof of death
b Presumption of death allows inheritance of property
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

29 When does a claim arise under an insurance policy?

a Whenever the policyholder feels the need for money
b When the insured events happen
c When a premium is not paid
d Whenever any of the three things mentioned above happen

30 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a Maturity claim cheques are paid to the trustees in a MWP Act case
b Maturity claim cheques are paid to the beneficiaries in a MWP Act case
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

31 If a claim is made in January 2007 under a policy, which commenced in May 2002, stating that the life insured had died in April 2004,

a Section 45 of the Act will not apply
b The claim can be treated as an early claim
c Foul play must be suspected
d All the three statements above are correct

32 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a A policy reported to be lost, may actually have been assigned
b A policy has no value after the payment of survival benefits
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

33 Which one of the following statements is correct?

a The foreign exchange regulations apply if the life insured is a non-resident
b The foreign exchange regulations apply if the claimant is a non-resident
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

34 State which of the following statements is correct

a ULIPs provide for flexibility
b ULIPs are better than traditional policies
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

35 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs, the offer bid spread is the difference between the two prices
b In ULIPs, the offer bid spread, will in some cases be zero
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

36 State which of the following statements is correct

a In ULIPs the insurance cover must be a minimum multiple of the premium
b ULIPs can be surrendered after two years
c Both the above statements are correct
d Both the above statements are wrong

37 State which one of the following statements is correct

a Life insurance is the best savings scheme for all persons
b Life insurance is the best investment scheme for young persons
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

38 Which of the following statements is correct?

a An insurance agent has fixed working hours
b An insurance agent has to mark his attendance in office every day
c An insurance agent works according to his schedule
d An insurance agent cannot do any other work

39 State which one of the following statements is correct

a When vital information is not disclosed, the policyholder is benefited
b When a claim is repudiated, the agent’s trustworthiness is affected
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

40 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The social sector is not only in the urban areas
b The social sector includes the unorganized sector
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

41 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The Ombudsman’s authority is limited to claims matters only
b The Ombudsman is not a judicial authority
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

42 State which one of the following statements is correct?

a The tax provisions are the same for all kinds of savings
b The tax provisions are included in the Constitution
c Both the statements above are correct
d Both the statements above are wrong

43 A proposal for SA of Rs. 10 lakhs with DAB for monthly mode under SSS.
Proposer had a previous policy of Rs. 5 lakhs with DAB. Proposal was
accepted with health extra of Rs. 2.75 per thousand SA premium for DAB Re 1 per
thousand. 5% extra for monthly mode. large SA rebate of Rs 2/- per thousand for
1 lakh and above. Tabular premium Rs. 48.20 maximum total SA on which DAB is allowed is Rs. 10/- lakhs.
Find monthly (SSS) premium, rounded off to the next higher rupee
a 4102
b 4121
c 4183
d 4195

44 Find out surrender value on the basis of following data (the answer to
be rounded off to the next lower rupee). SA Rs.30, 000 DOC- 15.6.1992,
Endowment with profit – 30 years
Due date of last premium paid 15-06-2007 mode half yearly
Accrued bonus Rs.750/- per thousand SA. SV factor 23%
a 3670
b 3765
c 8740
d None of these

45 A money back policy for SA. of Rs.50,000/- Matured after 25 years.
Survival benefits of 15% each had been paid at the end of 5th, 10th, 15th,
and 20th years. Bonus had accrued at Rs.965/- per Rs.1000/- SA. Interim bonus
@ Rs.25/- per thousand SA is payable. What is the maturity claim amount?
a 68250
b 69500
c 98250
d 99500

Correct Answers Practice Paper 6

1 d 16 d 31 d
2 a 17 c 32 a
3 d 18 b 33 c
4 c 19 c 34 a
5 d 20 a 35 c
6 a 21 b 36 a
7 d 22 d 37 d
8 d 23 d 38 c
9 c 24 b 39 b
10 a 25 d 40 c
11 c 26 a 41 b
12 c 27 d 42 d
13 b 28 c 43 b
14 c 29 b 44 c
15 a 30 a 45 b

1) 2^2n-1 is always divisible by 3

2^2n-1 = (3-1)^2n -1
= 3M +1 -1
= 3M, thus divisible by 3

2) What is the sum of the divisors of 2^5.3^7.5^3.7^2?

ANS : (2^6-1)(3^8-1)(5^4-1)(7^3-1)/2.4.6
Funda : if a number ‘n’ is represented as
a^x * b^y * c^z ….
where, {a,b,c,.. } are prime numbers then

3) what is the highest power of 10 in 203!ANS : express 10 as product of primes; 10 = 2*5

divide 203 with 2 and 5 individually
203/2 = 101
101/2 = 50
50/2 = 25
25/2 = 12
12/2 = 6
6/2 = 3
3/2 = 1
thus power of 2 in 203! is, 101 + 50 + 25 + 12 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 198

divide 203 with 5
203/5 = 40
40/5 = 8
8/5 = 1

thus power of 5 in 203! is, 49

so the power of 10 in 203! factorial is 49

4) x + y + z = 7 and xy + yz + zx = 10, then what is the maximum value of x? ( CAT 2002 has similar question )

ANS: 49-20 = 29, now if one of the y,z is zero, then the sum of other 2 squares shud be equal to 29, which means, x can take a max value at 5

5) In how many ways can 2310 be expressed as a product of 3 factors?

ANS: 2310 = 2*3*5*7*11
When a number can be expressed as a product of n distinct primes,
then it can be expressed as a product of 3 numbers in (3^(n+1) + 1)/2 ways

6) In how many ways, 729 can be expressed as a difference of 2 squares?

ANS: 729 = a^2 – b^2
= (a-b)(a+b),
since 729 = 3^5,
total ways of getting 729 are, 1*729, 3*243, 9*81, 27*27.
So 4 ways
Funda is that, all four ways of expressing can be used to findout distinct a,b values,
for example take 9*81
now since 9*81 = (a-b)(a+b) by solving the system a-b = 9 and a+b = 81 we can have 45,36 as soln.

7) How many times the digit 0 will appear from 1 to 10000

ANS: In 2 digit numbers : 9,
In 3 digit numbers : 18 + 162 = 180,
In 4 digit numbers : 2187 + 486 + 27 = 2700,
total = 9 + 180 + 2700 + 4 = 2893

8 ) What is the sum of all irreducible factors between 10 and 20 with denominator as 3?

ANS :
sum = 10.33 + 10.66 + 11.33 + 11.66 + 12.33 + 12.66 + 13.33 + 13.66…….
= 21 + 23 + ……
= 300

9) if n = 1+x where x is the product of 4 consecutive number then n is,
1) an odd number,
2) is a perfect square

SOLN : (1) is clearly evident
(2) let the 4 numbers be n-2,n-1,n and n+1 then by multing the whole thing and adding 1 we will have a perfect square

10) When 987 and 643 are divided by same number ‘n’ the reminder is also same, what is that number if the number is a odd prime number?

ANS : since both leave the same reminder, let the reminder be ‘r’,
then, 987 = an + r
and 643 = bn + r and thus
987 – 643 is divisible by ‘r’ and
987 – 643 = 344 = 86 * 4 = 43 * 8 and thus the prime is 43
hence ‘r’ is 43

11) when a number is divided by 11,7,4 the reminders are 5,6,3 respectively. what would be the reminders when the same number is divided by 4,7,11 respectively?

ANS : whenever such problem is given,
we need to write the numbers in top row and rems in the bottom row like this

11 7 4
| \ \
5 6 3

( coudnt express here properly )
now the number is of the form, LCM ( 11,7,4 ) + 11*(3*7 + 6) + 5
that is 302 + LCM(11,7,4) and thus the rems when the same number is divided by 4,7,11 respectively are,

302 mod 4 = 2
75 mod 7 = 5
10 mod 11 = 10

12) a^n – b^n is always divisible by a-b

13) if a+b+c = 0 then a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = 3abc

EXAMPLE: 40^3-17^3-23^3 is divisble by
since 40-23-17 = 0, 40^3-17^3-23^3 = 3*40*23*17 and thus, the number is divisible by 3,5,8,17,23 etc.

14) There is a seller of cigerette and match boxes who sits in the narrow lanes of cochin. He prices the cigerattes at 85 p, but found that there are no takers. So he reduced the price of cigarette and managed to sell all the cigerattes, realising Rs. 77.28 in all. What is the number of cigerattes?

a) 49
b) 81
c) 84
d) 92

ANS : (d)
since 77.28 = 92 * 84, and since price of cigarette is less than 85, we have (d) as answer

15) What does 100 stand for if 5 X 6 = 33
ANS : 81
SOLN : this is a number system question,
30 in decimal system is 33 in some base ‘n’, by solving we will have n as 9
and thus, 100 will be 9^2 = 81

16) In any number system 121 is a perfect square,
SOLN: let the base be ‘n’
then 121 can be written as n^2 + 2*n + 1 = (n+1)^2
hence proved

17) Most of you ppl know these, anyways, just in case

18 ) See Attachment to know how to find LCM, GCF of Fractions

19) Converting Recurring Decimals to Fractions

let the number x be 0.23434343434……..

thus 1000 x = 234.3434343434……
and 10 x = 2.3434343434………
thus, 990 x = 232
and hence, x = 232/990

20) Reminder Funda

(a) (a + b + c) % n = (a%n + b%n + c%n) %n

EXAMPLE: The reminders when 3 numbers 1221, 1331, 1441 are divided by certain number 9 are 6, 8, 1 respectively. What would be the reminder when you divide 3993 with

9? ( never seen such question though )
the reminder would be (6 + 8 + 1) % 9 = 6

(b) (a*b*c) % n = (a%n * b%n * c%n) %n

EXAMPLE: What is the remainder left when 1073 * 1079 * 1087 is divided by 119 ? ( seen this kinda questions alot )
1073 % 119 = ?
since 1190 is divisible by 119, 1073 mod 119 is 2
and thus, “the remainder left when 1073 * 1079 * 1087 is divided by 119 ” is 2*8*16 mod 119 and that is 256 mod 119 and that is (238 + 18 ) mod 119 and that is 18

Glossary : % stands for reminder operation

find the number of zeroes in 1^1* 2^2* 3^3* 4^4………….. 98^98* 99^99* 100^100

the expresion can be rewritten as (100!)^100 / 0!* 1!* 2!* 3!….99!

Now the numerator has 2400 zeros

the formular for finding number of zeros in n! is

[n/5]+[n/5^2]…[n/5^r]
where r is such that 5^r<=n<5^(r+1)

and [..] is the grestest integer function

for the numerator find the number of zeros using the above formulae..

for 0!…4! number of zeros ..0
5!…9!.number os zeros ..1
9!…14!… 2
15!..19!………………3
20!..24!………………4!
now at 25! the series makes a jump to 6
25!…29!……………..6
30!…34!……………..7
this goes on and again makes a jump at 50!
and then at 75!

so the number of zeros is…

5(1+2….19) + 25+ 50+ 75

the last 3 terms 25 50 and 75 are because of the jumps..

this gives numerator has 1100 zeros

now total number of zeros in expression is no of zeros in denominator – no of zeros in numerator
2400 – 1100

the Answer is 1300

SBI CLERK MODEL QUESTION NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST

1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:

a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

e. None of these

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

e. None of these

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c 6)c 7)c 8)d 9)b 10)c 11)a 12)a 13)c

14)d 15)c 16)d 17)a 18)c 19)c 20)c 21)c

22)d 23)b 24)d 25)b

NUMERICAL ABILITY TEST
1. Sum of smallest six digit no. and greatest five digit no. is:

a. 199999

b. 201110

c. 211110

d. 1099999

e. None of these

2. Value of 112 * 54. is :

a. 6700

b. 70000

c. 76500

d. 77200

e. None of these

3. 1399*1399

a. 1687401

b. 1901541

c. 1943211

d. 1957201

e. None of these

4. When a no. is multiplied by 13 product consist of all 5’s. The smallest such no. is

a. 41625

b. 42135

c. 42515

d. 42735

e. None of these

5. If n is –ve no. then which of the following is least.

a. 0

b. –n

c. 2n

d. n2

e. None of these

6. If -1<=x <=2 and 1<= y <= 3 then least value of 2y-3x is :

a. 0

b. -3

c. -4

d. -5

e. None of these

7. The least prime no. is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

e. None of these

8. The sum of prime no.’s b/w 60 and 75 is:

a. 199

b. 201

c. 211

d. 272

e. None of these

9. Total no. of even prime no.’s is :

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. None

e. None of these

e. None of these

10. How many No’s B/w 400 and 600 begin with or end with digit 5.

a. 40

b. 100

c. 110

d. 120

11. The digit in unit’s place of product 81*82……..*89 is:

a. 0

b. 2

c. 6

d. 8

e. None of these

12. The sum of first 45 natural no’s is :

a. 1035

b. 1280

c. 2070

d. 2140

e. None of these

13. The unit’s digit in the product of 771 * 659 * 3 65 is :

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. None of these

14. Which no. is exactly divisible by 11

a. 235641

b. 245642

c. 315624

d. 415624

e. None of these

15. The largest natural no. which exactly divides the product of any 4 consecutive natural no’s is:

a. 6

b. 12

c. 24

d. 120

e. None of these

16. The diff. b/w squares of 2 consecutive odd integers is always divisible by:

a. 3

b. 6

c. 7

d. 8

e. None of these

17. The smallest no. to be added to 1000 so that 45 divides the sum exactly is :

a. 10

b. 20

c. 35

d. 80

e. None of these

18. The least no. which must be subtracted from 6709 to make it exactly divisible by 9 is :

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

e. None of these

19. Find the no. nearest to 99547 and exactly divisible by 687:

a. 98928

b. 99479

c. 99615

d. 100166

e. None of these

20. The least no. by which 72 must be multiplied in order to produce a multiple of 112 is

a. 6

b. 12

c. 14

d. 18

e. None of these

21. Which largest no. of 5 digits is divisible by 99:

a. 99909

b. 99981

c. 99990

d. 99999

e. None of these

22. A no. when divided by 114 leaves the remainder 21 if same no. is divided by 19 the remainder will be

a. 1

b. 2

c. 7

d. 21

e. None of these

23. The diff. b/w 2 no’s is 1365 when larger no. is divided by smaller the quotient is 6 and the remainder is 15. The smaller no. is :

a. 240

b. 270

c. 295

d. 360

e. None of these

24. The divisor is 10 times the quotient and 5 times the remainder if remainder is 46 then dividend is :

a. 4236

b. 4306

c. 4336

d. 5336

e. None of these

e. None of these

25. A four digit no. divisible by 7 becomes divisible by 3 when 10 is added to it the largest such no. is :

a. 9947

b. 9987

c. 9989

d. 9996

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION :

1) a

2) 1120000/16 = b

3) (1400-1)*(1400-1) = d

4) 555555/13 = d

5)c  6)c  7)c  8)d   9)b  10)c  11)a  12)a  13)c  14)d

15)c  16)d  17)a  18)c  19)c  20)c  21)c

22)d   23)b   24)d   25)b